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A nurse is caring for a postpartum client who arrives at the clinic for her follow-up appointment 4 weeks after delivery.
The client is asking about birth control options. What contraception option would you recommend as being the most reliable?

A.

A male condom.

B.

Vaginal ring.

C.

Hormonal implant.

D.

An oral contraceptive.

E.

An oral contraceptive.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Choice A rationale

Male condoms are effective in preventing pregnancy and sexually transmitted infections, but their reliability can be compromised by improper use or breakage.

 

Choice B rationale

Vaginal rings provide hormonal contraception and are effective, but they may be less reliable compared to implants due to potential for incorrect use.

 

Choice C rationale

Hormonal implants are highly reliable because they provide continuous contraception over an extended period (up to 3-5 years) with minimal user intervention.

 

Choice D rationale

Oral contraceptives are effective when taken correctly, but their reliability can be reduced by missed doses or incorrect use.

 


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View Related questions

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Administering antipyretics for maternal fever is essential as elevated maternal temperatures can increase the risk of fetal tachycardia and potentially lead to fetal distress. Reducing

fever promptly is a priority to stabilize both maternal and fetal conditions.

Choice B rationale

Preparing for an emergency cesarean section is not the immediate step for maternal fever; instead, managing the fever and assessing the need for further interventions based on the

overall clinical picture should be prioritized.

Choice C rationale

Administering glucocorticoids is indicated for promoting fetal lung maturity in preterm labor, not specifically for maternal fever management. Fever management requires antipyretics

and hydration.

Choice D rationale

Waiting 4 hours to recheck temperature delays prompt management, increasing risks for both the mother and fetus. Immediate action to reduce fever is crucial to prevent potential

complications.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Open heart surgery is unrelated to the development of vaginal fistulas.

Choice B rationale

Tissue trauma from childbirth can cause vaginal fistulas, as prolonged labor or obstetric interventions can damage vaginal tissue and lead to fistula formation.

Choice C rationale

Diabetes mellitus does not directly cause vaginal fistulas, although it can affect overall tissue health and healing.

Choice D rationale

Preeclampsia, while a serious pregnancy complication, is not a direct cause of vaginal fistulas.

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