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A nurse is caring for a postpartum client who arrives at the clinic for her follow-up appointment 4 weeks after delivery.
The client is asking about birth control options. What contraception option would you recommend as being the most reliable?

A.

A male condom.

B.

Vaginal ring.

C.

Hormonal implant.

D.

An oral contraceptive.

E.

An oral contraceptive.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Choice A rationale

Male condoms are effective in preventing pregnancy and sexually transmitted infections, but their reliability can be compromised by improper use or breakage.

 

Choice B rationale

Vaginal rings provide hormonal contraception and are effective, but they may be less reliable compared to implants due to potential for incorrect use.

 

Choice C rationale

Hormonal implants are highly reliable because they provide continuous contraception over an extended period (up to 3-5 years) with minimal user intervention.

 

Choice D rationale

Oral contraceptives are effective when taken correctly, but their reliability can be reduced by missed doses or incorrect use.

 


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View Related questions

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Administering antipyretics for maternal fever is essential as elevated maternal temperatures can increase the risk of fetal tachycardia and potentially lead to fetal distress. Reducing

fever promptly is a priority to stabilize both maternal and fetal conditions.

Choice B rationale

Preparing for an emergency cesarean section is not the immediate step for maternal fever; instead, managing the fever and assessing the need for further interventions based on the

overall clinical picture should be prioritized.

Choice C rationale

Administering glucocorticoids is indicated for promoting fetal lung maturity in preterm labor, not specifically for maternal fever management. Fever management requires antipyretics

and hydration.

Choice D rationale

Waiting 4 hours to recheck temperature delays prompt management, increasing risks for both the mother and fetus. Immediate action to reduce fever is crucial to prevent potential

complications.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Increasing the rate of infusion of IV oxytocin in the presence of abnormal fetal heart rate decelerations is contraindicated. It may exacerbate uterine hyperstimulation, further compromising fetal oxygenation.

Choice B rationale

Decreasing the rate of infusion of the maintenance IV solution will not address the issue of uterine hyperstimulation or abnormal fetal heart rate decelerations. The focus should be on managing oxytocin administration.

Choice C rationale

Discontinuing the infusion of IV oxytocin is appropriate due to uterine tachysystole and associated fetal heart rate decelerations. This helps reduce uterine contractions and allows for fetal recovery, improving oxygenation.

Choice D rationale

Slowing the client's rate of breathing is not related to managing uterine contractions or fetal heart rate decelerations. The intervention should directly address the cause of the decelerations, which is oxytocin-induced hyperstimulation. .

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