A nurse is caring for a client with a new diagnosis of a vaginal fistula.
The client states, "I don't understand how I got this.”. Which of the following is a potential cause of a vaginal fistula?
Open heart surgery.
Tissue trauma from childbirth.
Diabetes mellitus.
Preeclampsia.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale
Open heart surgery is unrelated to the development of vaginal fistulas.
Choice B rationale
Tissue trauma from childbirth can cause vaginal fistulas, as prolonged labor or obstetric interventions can damage vaginal tissue and lead to fistula formation.
Choice C rationale
Diabetes mellitus does not directly cause vaginal fistulas, although it can affect overall tissue health and healing.
Choice D rationale
Preeclampsia, while a serious pregnancy complication, is not a direct cause of vaginal fistulas.
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Correct Answer is ["A","B","C","F"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
A postpartum temperature of 100.4°F (38.0°C) or higher may indicate an infection. Infections can occur after delivery, particularly if there was a manual extraction of the placenta, as in
this case. Close monitoring and further assessment are necessary to ensure the client does not develop sepsis or other complications.
Choice B rationale:
Fundal tone should be firm and well-contracted to prevent excessive bleeding postpartum. A boggy, midline fundus suggests that the uterus is not contracting effectively, increasing the
risk for postpartum hemorrhage. This requires immediate attention and intervention to ensure adequate uterine tone and control bleeding.
Choice C rationale:
Lochia should be monitored for quantity, color, and the presence of clots. Heavy lochia with small clots indicates that the client may be experiencing postpartum hemorrhage, which is a
significant concern. This can be related to uterine atony, retained placental fragments, or coagulopathies and warrants prompt evaluation and intervention.
Choice D rationale:
A respiratory rate of 17/min is within the normal adult range (12-20/min) and does not require follow-up. There are no signs of respiratory distress or abnormalities in this case, indicating
that the client's respiratory status is stable and does not necessitate further evaluation.
Choice E rationale:
A white blood cell count of 12,000/mm³ is within the expected range for postpartum women, where normal values can be elevated due to physiological stress and inflammation from
delivery. This level does not indicate infection or pathology and does not require follow-up in the context provided.
Choice F rationale:
Blood pressure of 144/92 mmHg is elevated and concerning, particularly in a postpartum client with a history of chronic hypertension and gestational diabetes. This could signal
postpartum preeclampsia or other hypertensive disorders, requiring careful monitoring and management to prevent complications like seizures, stroke, or organ damage.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
External fetal monitors are non-invasive and do not pose a risk of transmitting HIV from mother to baby. They are considered safe for monitoring fetal well-being in an HIV-positive mother.
Choice B rationale
Administering antiviral medication is essential in reducing the risk of mother-to-child transmission of HIV. It's a standard care practice for managing HIV-positive pregnant women.
Choice C rationale
Preparing for a caesarean section may be recommended to reduce the risk of vertical transmission of HIV during delivery, especially if the viral load is high.
Choice D rationale
Internal fetal scalp electrodes are contraindicated because they can create a portal for HIV transmission from mother to baby through small abrasions or punctures on the fetal scalp.