A nurse is caring for a client with a new diagnosis of a vaginal fistula.
The client states, "I don't understand how I got this.”. Which of the following is a potential cause of a vaginal fistula?
Open heart surgery.
Tissue trauma from childbirth.
Diabetes mellitus.
Preeclampsia.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale
Open heart surgery is unrelated to the development of vaginal fistulas.
Choice B rationale
Tissue trauma from childbirth can cause vaginal fistulas, as prolonged labor or obstetric interventions can damage vaginal tissue and lead to fistula formation.
Choice C rationale
Diabetes mellitus does not directly cause vaginal fistulas, although it can affect overall tissue health and healing.
Choice D rationale
Preeclampsia, while a serious pregnancy complication, is not a direct cause of vaginal fistulas.
Free Nursing Test Bank
- Free Pharmacology Quiz 1
- Free Medical-Surgical Quiz 2
- Free Fundamentals Quiz 3
- Free Maternal-Newborn Quiz 4
- Free Anatomy and Physiology Quiz 5
- Free Obstetrics and Pediatrics Quiz 6
- Free Fluid and Electrolytes Quiz 7
- Free Community Health Quiz 8
- Free Promoting Health across the Lifespan Quiz 9
- Free Multidimensional Care Quiz 10
View Related questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Brisk patellar deep tendon reflexes can indicate central nervous system irritability, which might suggest conditions like preeclampsia or eclampsia if accompanied by other symptoms. It's critical to assess and monitor for further complications.
Choice B rationale
A moderate amount of lochia on the perineal pad over 2 hours is normal postpartum bleeding and does not typically indicate an immediate concern if within expected ranges.
Choice C rationale
A fundus at the level of the umbilicus is an expected finding 4 hours postpartum and indicates normal uterine involution. It is not a priority concern at this stage.
Choice D rationale
Approximated edges of an episiotomy indicate that the incision is healing properly without signs of infection or dehiscence. This is a normal and expected finding in the postpartum period.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Precipitous labor is a rapid labor that typically lasts less than 3 hours. While it can result in trauma and complications, it does not inherently increase the risk for an operative delivery,
which is more often related to other factors like fetal distress or failure to progress.
Choice B rationale
Postpartum hemorrhage (PPH) is a significant concern with precipitous labor due to the rapid and forceful contractions that can cause uterine atony, leading to increased bleeding
after birth.
Choice C rationale
In a precipitous labor, the rapid delivery can cause vaginal lacerations, not a decreased risk. The swift passage of the baby through the birth canal increases the risk of tears and
trauma.
Choice D rationale
Neonatal sepsis is related to infections acquired during delivery but is not specifically linked to the speed of labor. The primary concern in precipitous labor is maternal trauma and
hemorrhage, not infection.