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A nurse is caring for a client with a new diagnosis of a vaginal fistula.
The client states, "I don't understand how I got this.”. Which of the following is a potential cause of a vaginal fistula?

A.

Open heart surgery.

B.

Tissue trauma from childbirth.

C.

Diabetes mellitus.

D.

Preeclampsia.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Choice A rationale

Open heart surgery is unrelated to the development of vaginal fistulas.

 

Choice B rationale

Tissue trauma from childbirth can cause vaginal fistulas, as prolonged labor or obstetric interventions can damage vaginal tissue and lead to fistula formation.

 

Choice C rationale

Diabetes mellitus does not directly cause vaginal fistulas, although it can affect overall tissue health and healing.

 

Choice D rationale

Preeclampsia, while a serious pregnancy complication, is not a direct cause of vaginal fistulas.


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View Related questions

Correct Answer is ["A","B","C","D","E"]

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Postpartum blues typically resolve within the first two weeks postpartum and involve mild symptoms like mood swings and irritability. In contrast, postpartum depression can persist

longer and requires treatment.

Choice B rationale

Symptoms of postpartum blues usually disappear without medical intervention, whereas postpartum depression often needs professional treatment to manage the more severe and

persistent symptoms.

Choice C rationale

Postpartum depression can impair a mother's ability to care for herself and her baby safely, requiring intervention to prevent harm. Postpartum blues do not typically cause such severe

functional impairment.

Choice D rationale

Postpartum depression may require antidepressants for treatment due to its severity. Postpartum blues generally do not necessitate such interventions and are managed through

support and reassurance.

Choice E rationale

Postpartum depression can occur at any time within the first 12 months after delivery, while postpartum blues are usually confined to the initial two weeks postpartum.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Copious vernix is typically found on preterm newborns, not those born post-term.

Choice B rationale

Dry, cracked skin is a common finding in post-term newborns due to prolonged exposure to amniotic fluid.

Choice C rationale

Decreased subcutaneous fat is more likely in preterm newborns, while post-term newborns might lose some fat due to nutrient depletion.

Choice D rationale

Scant scalp hair is more common in preterm infants, whereas post-term infants usually have more developed hair. .

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