A nurse is caring for a client with a new diagnosis of a vaginal fistula.
The client states, "I don't understand how I got this.”. Which of the following is a potential cause of a vaginal fistula?
Open heart surgery.
Tissue trauma from childbirth.
Diabetes mellitus.
Preeclampsia.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale
Open heart surgery is unrelated to the development of vaginal fistulas.
Choice B rationale
Tissue trauma from childbirth can cause vaginal fistulas, as prolonged labor or obstetric interventions can damage vaginal tissue and lead to fistula formation.
Choice C rationale
Diabetes mellitus does not directly cause vaginal fistulas, although it can affect overall tissue health and healing.
Choice D rationale
Preeclampsia, while a serious pregnancy complication, is not a direct cause of vaginal fistulas.
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Correct Answer is ["A","B","E"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Rapid weight gain during pregnancy, especially when accompanied by other symptoms, can be a sign of preeclampsia. This condition is characterized by high blood pressure and often occurs after 20 weeks of gestation. Reporting rapid weight gain is important for early detection and management.
Choice B rationale:
Visual disturbances, such as blurred vision, can be a warning sign of preeclampsia. It indicates potential neurological involvement and requires immediate evaluation to prevent complications for both the mother and the fetus.
Choice C rationale:
Elevated blood pressure readings are a critical sign of preeclampsia, a condition that can lead to serious health complications for both the mother and the baby if left untreated. Reporting elevated blood pressure is essential for early intervention and management.
Choice D rationale:
While the respiratory rate is slightly elevated, it is not as critical an indicator of preeclampsia as the other findings. In this case, the focus should be on more concerning symptoms, such as blood pressure and visual disturbances.
Choice E rationale:
Hyperactive deep tendon reflexes (3+) are a clinical sign of preeclampsia. The absence of clonus is a reassuring sign, but the presence of hyperactive reflexes warrants further evaluation and monitoring.
Choice F rationale:
The fetal heart rate (FHT) of 148/min is within the normal range (110-160/min) and does not indicate an immediate concern that needs to be reported. The nurse should focus on the maternal symptoms that suggest preeclampsia.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Blood pressure should be addressed first due to the client’s elevated BP (144/92 mmHg), which is a potential sign of complications such as preeclampsia.
Choice B rationale
Pulse of 99 bpm is slightly elevated but not immediately concerning compared to the high BP.
Choice C rationale
Respirations are within normal range (17/min) and do not require immediate intervention.
Choice D rationale
Temperature of 100.4°F (38.0°C) is slightly elevated but not as critical as the high BP.