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A nurse is caring for a client who reports to the clinic for laboratory tests. The client has an acute injury caused by acute tubular necrosis and asks why their glomerular filtration rate keeps decreasing. Which of the following pathophysiological changes occurring in the kidney should the nurse explain as the cause of decrease?

A.

The glomerular filtration rate decreases because there is a reduction of blood flow to the kidneys.

B.

The glomerular filtration rate decreases because there is injury to the renal tubular cells.

C.

The glomerular filtration rate decreases because inflammatory dells invade the already damaged kidneys.

D.

The glomerular filtration rate decreases because there is obstruction leading to the filtration system backing up and eventually shutting the kidneys down.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A. The glomerular filtration rate decreases because there is a reduction of blood flow to the kidneys. Reduced blood flow to the kidneys, or renal hypoperfusion, decreases the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) because less blood is being filtered through the kidneys. This can occur in conditions such as shock, severe dehydration, or heart failure, but it is not the primary mechanism in acute tubular necrosis (ATN).

 

B. The glomerular filtration rate decreases because there is injury to the renal tubular cells. In ATN, the injury to renal tubular cells impairs their function, leading to reduced reabsorption and filtration ability, which contributes to the decrease in GFR.

 

C. The glomerular filtration rate decreases because inflammatory cells invade the already damaged kidneys. While inflammation may be present, it is not the primary cause of decreased GFR in acute tubular necrosis; reduced blood flow and tubular cell injury are more direct causes.

 

D. The glomerular filtration rate decreases because there is obstruction leading to the filtration system backing up and eventually shutting the kidneys down. Obstruction is not typically a characteristic of acute tubular necrosis; ATN is usually caused by ischemic or toxic injury, not physical obstruction.


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View Related questions

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Initiate intravenous fluid therapy. While fluid therapy is essential to support circulation and reduce the risk of shock, oxygenation takes priority in fat embolism management.

B. Prepare the client for emergency surgery. Surgery is not typically the first-line intervention for fat embolism; management focuses on supportive care, particularly respiratory support.

C. Administer high-flow oxygen via a non-rebreather mask. High-flow oxygen is the first priority to address hypoxia caused by fat embolism and should be administered immediately to maintain adequate oxygenation.

D. Apply sequential compression devices (SCDs). SCDs are used to prevent venous thromboembolism, but they do not help with the treatment of fat embolism.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Administering mannitol intravenously: Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic that helps reduce ICP by drawing fluid out of brain tissue and decreasing cerebral edema, making it a priority intervention.

B. Encouraging the patient to hyperventilate: Controlled hyperventilation may reduce ICP temporarily by lowering CO₂ levels and causing cerebral vasoconstriction. However, it should only be done cautiously under close monitoring, and other ICP management techniques like mannitol administration take priority.

C. Administering a high-dose corticosteroid: Corticosteroids are generally ineffective for reducing ICP in traumatic brain injury and are typically not recommended in this scenario.

D. Performing a lumbar puncture immediately: Lumbar puncture is contraindicated in cases of increased ICP because it may lead to brain herniation due to the sudden release of pressure.

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