- A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative.
Nurses' Notes
1400:
Client transferred from PACU following appendectomy. Oriented to person, place, and time. Surgical dressing is dry and intact. Wound drain has 30 mL of serosanguinous drainage. Client reports pain is 7 on a scale of 0 to 10.
2200
Bowel sounds are present in all quadrants. Client is passing flatus. Urinary output is 400 mL over 6 hr. Client reports incisional pain of 4 on a scale of 0 to 10. Surgical dressing has a moderate amount of serosanguinous drainage. Wound drain has 0 mL output over 8 hr.
Vital Signs
1400:
Temperature 37.8° C (100" F)
Heart rate 110/min
Respiratory rate 18/min
Blood pressure 165/70 mmHg
SpO2 95% on room air
1800:
Temperature 37.8° C (100° F)
Heart rate 96/min
Respiratory rate 20/min
Blood pressure 125/78 mmHg
SpO2 96% on room air
Provider Prescriptions
1400
Ceftriaxone 1 gram IV daily
Acetaminophen 650 mg PO every 6 hours for pain
Which of the following should the nurse request as a recommendation in an SBAR report to the provider? Select All That Apply
Medication for elevated temperature
Insertion of NG tube for decompression
Oxygen 2 to 4 L/min via nasal cannula
Insertion of urinary catheter
Evaluation of surgical wound drain
Correct Answer : A,E
Rationale:
A. While the client's temperature is not extremely high, it is elevated and persistent. Requesting an antipyretic or further evaluation may be warranted to prevent potential complications.
B. Insertion of NG tube for decompression is not necessary as the client is passing flatus and has bowel sounds in all quadrants, indicating normal gastrointestinal function.
C. Oxygen 2 to 4 L/min via nasal cannula is not necessary since the client's SpO2 levels are within normal range on room air.
D. The client's urinary output is adequate (400 mL over 6 hours), so a catheter is not required at this time.
E. The lack of drainage from the wound drain could indicate a problem that requires immediate attention. This could prevent complications like infection or fluid accumulation.
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View Related questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Rationale:
A. The client should sign the informed consent if they are alert, oriented, and capable of making decisions. The client's ability to understand the procedure and its implications is key to valid informed consent.
B. The client's son, who has a durable power of attorney would only sign the consent if the client were not competent or unable to understand the procedure, which is not the case here.
C. The client's partner may be involved in the decision-making process but does not have the legal authority to sign the consent unless designated as a legal representative.
D. The client's daughter, who is the primary caregiver would also not have the legal authority to sign the consent unless she holds a durable power of attorney or the client is deemed incapable of giving consent.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Radiologic is correct as a "dirty bomb" (radiological dispersal device) involves the dispersal of radioactive materials.
B. Anthrax is a biological agent, not associated with a dirty bomb.
C. Chemical refers to a chemical weapon, which is not what a dirty bomb involves.
D. Sarin is a nerve agent, not related to the concept of a dirty bomb.