- A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative.
Nurses' Notes
1400:
Client transferred from PACU following appendectomy. Oriented to person, place, and time. Surgical dressing is dry and intact. Wound drain has 30 mL of serosanguinous drainage. Client reports pain is 7 on a scale of 0 to 10.
2200
Bowel sounds are present in all quadrants. Client is passing flatus. Urinary output is 400 mL over 6 hr. Client reports incisional pain of 4 on a scale of 0 to 10. Surgical dressing has a moderate amount of serosanguinous drainage. Wound drain has 0 mL output over 8 hr.
Vital Signs
1400:
Temperature 37.8° C (100" F)
Heart rate 110/min
Respiratory rate 18/min
Blood pressure 165/70 mmHg
SpO2 95% on room air
1800:
Temperature 37.8° C (100° F)
Heart rate 96/min
Respiratory rate 20/min
Blood pressure 125/78 mmHg
SpO2 96% on room air
Provider Prescriptions
1400
Ceftriaxone 1 gram IV daily
Acetaminophen 650 mg PO every 6 hours for pain
Which of the following should the nurse request as a recommendation in an SBAR report to the provider? Select All That Apply
Medication for elevated temperature
Insertion of NG tube for decompression
Oxygen 2 to 4 L/min via nasal cannula
Insertion of urinary catheter
Evaluation of surgical wound drain
Correct Answer : A,E
Rationale:
A. While the client's temperature is not extremely high, it is elevated and persistent. Requesting an antipyretic or further evaluation may be warranted to prevent potential complications.
B. Insertion of NG tube for decompression is not necessary as the client is passing flatus and has bowel sounds in all quadrants, indicating normal gastrointestinal function.
C. Oxygen 2 to 4 L/min via nasal cannula is not necessary since the client's SpO2 levels are within normal range on room air.
D. The client's urinary output is adequate (400 mL over 6 hours), so a catheter is not required at this time.
E. The lack of drainage from the wound drain could indicate a problem that requires immediate attention. This could prevent complications like infection or fluid accumulation.
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Correct Answer is ["A","D","E"]
Explanation
Rationale:
A. While pulling the fire alarm is correct, removing the client from the room without following the full RACE sequence (Remove, Alarm, Confine, Extinguish/Evacuate) is incorrect. The immediate safety measures should include ensuring that the alarm is activated before evacuation and confining the fire if possible.
B. Verifying the order of protective equipment removal with the nurse shows a good practice and adherence to proper infection control procedures.
C. Washing hands prior to leaving the room after disinfecting equipment indicates proper infection control practice.
D. Handwashing is a crucial aspect of infection control. Failure to perform hand hygiene during or after patient care increases the risk of infection transmission. Immediate follow-up is needed to ensure that proper hand hygiene practices are adhered to.
E. Knowing the locations of alarms is vital for effective fire safety. Inability to identify these locations indicates a significant gap in preparedness for emergencies. Immediate follow-up is necessary to ensure that staff are familiar with fire safety procedures and equipment locations.
F. Successfully completing the skills in simulation, including emptying the client's trash can, shows adherence to task requirements but is not a critical issue requiring immediate follow-up compared to the other findings.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Nonmaleficence is the principle of doing no harm, which is not directly demonstrated by completing a course.
B. Veracity involves truthfulness, not specifically related to taking a course before transferring units.
C. Autonomy is related to respecting individuals' rights to make their own decisions and is not demonstrated by completing educational requirements.
D. Fidelity refers to being faithful to one’s commitments and promises, which includes taking steps to ensure competency in a new area of practice, thus demonstrating dedication to providing competent care.