Try our free nursing testbanks today. click here to join
Teas 7 test, Hesi A2 and Nursing prep
Nursingprepexams LEARN. PREPARE. EXCEL!
  • Home
  • Nursing
  • TEAS
  • HESI
  • Blog
Start Studying Now

Take full exam for free

A nurse is caring for a client who is having difficulty voiding following surgery. The nurse notes palpable bladder distention. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate administering to the client?

A.

Furosemide

B.

Lorazepam

C.

Bethanechol

D.

Atropine

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Rationale:

 

A. Furosemide is a diuretic that promotes urine production but is not indicated for treating bladder distention or urinary retention post-surgery.

 

B. Lorazepam is an anxiolytic medication and does not address urinary retention or bladder distention.

 

C. Bethanechol is a cholinergic agent that stimulates bladder contraction and is used to treat urinary retention. It helps to facilitate voiding in clients who have difficulty.

 

D. Atropine is an anticholinergic medication that can actually inhibit bladder contraction, making it inappropriate for this situation.


Free Nursing Test Bank

  1. Free Pharmacology Quiz 1
  2. Free Medical-Surgical Quiz 2
  3. Free Fundamentals Quiz 3
  4. Free Maternal-Newborn Quiz 4
  5. Free Anatomy and Physiology Quiz 5
  6. Free Obstetrics and Pediatrics Quiz 6
  7. Free Fluid and Electrolytes Quiz 7
  8. Free Community Health Quiz 8
  9. Free Promoting Health across the Lifespan Quiz 9
  10. Free Multidimensional Care Quiz 10
Take full exam free

View Related questions

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Rationale:

A. Nitrofurantoin can cause brown-colored urine due to its pigment, and clients should be informed to report this as a common side effect and not a cause for alarm.

B. Nitrofurantoin is an antibiotic used to treat urinary tract infections and does not provide relief for peripheral nerve pain.

C. Nitrofurantoin should not be crushed, as it can affect the medication's absorption and effectiveness.

D. A cough is not a typical side effect of nitrofurantoin; however, if the client develops a cough, it could be a sign of a serious side effect, and they should notify the provider.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Rationale:

A. Applying a warming blanket is not appropriate and may worsen the client’s reaction to the infusion. It does not help prevent infusion-related reactions.

B. Infusing amphotericin B deoxycholate over 1 hour is too fast; the medication should be infused over 2-6 hours to reduce the risk of adverse effects.

C. Administering diphenhydramine prior to administration is recommended to help prevent infusion-related reactions, such as fever and chills, which the client experienced during previous infusions.

D. Monitoring vital signs once per hour is inadequate; vital signs should be monitored more frequently during and immediately after the infusion to promptly identify and manage any adverse reactions.

Quick Links

Nursing Teas Hesi Blog

Resources

Nursing Test banks Teas Prep Hesi Prep Nursingprepexams Blogs
© Nursingprepexams.com @ 2019 -2026, All Right Reserved.