A nurse is caring for a client who is having difficulty voiding following surgery. The nurse notes palpable bladder distention. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate administering to the client?
Furosemide
Lorazepam
Bethanechol
Atropine
The Correct Answer is C
Rationale:
A. Furosemide is a diuretic that promotes urine production but is not indicated for treating bladder distention or urinary retention post-surgery.
B. Lorazepam is an anxiolytic medication and does not address urinary retention or bladder distention.
C. Bethanechol is a cholinergic agent that stimulates bladder contraction and is used to treat urinary retention. It helps to facilitate voiding in clients who have difficulty.
D. Atropine is an anticholinergic medication that can actually inhibit bladder contraction, making it inappropriate for this situation.
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Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Muscle rigidity of the extremities: This finding is more indicative of hyperkalemia or severe electrolyte imbalances but is not a common symptom of hypokalemia.
B. Bounding radial pulses: This finding is more associated with hypervolemia or hyperkalemia, not with hypokalemia caused by furosemide.
C. Depressed deep tendon reflexes: This is the correct response, as low potassium levels (hypokalemia) can lead to diminished reflexes due to its role in neuromuscular function.
D. Increased bowel motility: This is incorrect, as hypokalemia typically results in decreased bowel motility and may cause constipation rather than increased motility.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Requesting a serum trough level blood draw for 60 minutes after the completion of the infusion is appropriate for monitoring the therapeutic levels of vancomycin and ensuring it is within the desired range to prevent toxicity.
B. Changing the infusion site after each dose administration is not necessary unless there is an issue such as infiltration or phlebitis; typically, the site can be used for multiple doses if it remains patent and functional.
C. Contacting the provider for prescription clarification is not needed unless there are specific concerns about the medication or the administration protocol; in this case, the order is clear and standard.
D. Requesting a serum peak level to be drawn 30 minutes prior to infusion is incorrect, as the peak level should be drawn 30 minutes after the completion of the infusion, not before the next dose.