A nurse is caring for a client who is having a nonstress test.
The fetal heart rate (FHR) baseline is 130 bpm, there is moderate variability, but there have been no accelerations or fetal movement.
Which of the following actions should the nurse complete next?
Encourage the client to walk around for 30 minutes, then resume monitoring.
Perform vibroacoustic stimulation.
Immediately report the situation to the provider and prepare the client for induction of labor.
Reposition the client into a supine position.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale
Encouraging the client to walk around for 30 minutes and then resume monitoring is not the most appropriate action in this scenario. Walking may help stimulate fetal movement, but it is not the first-line intervention when there are no accelerations or fetal movement during a nonstress test. The nurse should try other methods to stimulate fetal movement before resorting to walking.
Choice B rationale
Performing vibroacoustic stimulation is the correct action. Vibroacoustic stimulation involves using a device to produce a sound and vibration near the maternal abdomen to stimulate fetal movement and heart rate accelerations. This method is non-invasive and can help determine fetal well-being by eliciting a response from the fetus.
Choice C rationale
Immediately reporting the situation to the provider and preparing the client for induction of labor is premature. The absence of accelerations or fetal movement during a nonstress test does not immediately indicate a need for induction of labor. Other less invasive interventions, such as vibroacoustic stimulation, should be attempted first.
Choice D rationale
Repositioning the client into a supine position is not recommended. The supine position can lead to supine hypotensive syndrome, which can decrease blood flow to the fetus. The nurse should avoid placing the client in a supine position and instead try other methods to stimulate fetal movement.
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View Related questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Terbutaline is a beta-adrenergic agonist that works by relaxing the smooth muscles of the uterus, thereby reducing uterine contractions. It is commonly used in cases of tachysystole and recurrent late decelerations to decrease uterine activity and improve fetal oxygenation. Terbutaline’s mechanism of action involves stimulating beta-2 adrenergic receptors, which leads to an increase in cyclic AMP and subsequent relaxation of uterine smooth muscle.
Choice B rationale
Oxytocin is a hormone that stimulates uterine contractions and is typically used to induce or augment labor. Administering oxytocin in a situation where there is already tachysystole and recurrent late decelerations would exacerbate the problem by increasing uterine contractions, potentially leading to further fetal distress.
Choice C rationale
Misoprostol is a prostaglandin analog used to ripen the cervix and induce labor. Similar to oxytocin, it would not be appropriate in this scenario as it would increase uterine contractions, worsening the tachysystole and late decelerations.
Choice D rationale
Magnesium sulfate is primarily used as a tocolytic to prevent preterm labor and as a neuroprotective agent for the fetus in cases of preeclampsia. While it has some uterine relaxation properties, it is not the first-line treatment for reducing uterine activity in the context of tachysystole and late decelerations.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
The occiput anterior (OA) position is considered the optimal fetal position for vaginal birth. In this position, the baby’s head is down, and the back of the head (occiput) is facing the mother’s front. This position allows for the most efficient passage through the birth canal.
Choice B rationale
The occiput posterior (OP) position, where the baby’s head is down but facing the mother’s back, can lead to a longer and more painful labor. It is not considered optimal for vaginal birth.
Choice C rationale
Breech positions, where the baby’s buttocks or feet are positioned to come out first, are not optimal for vaginal birth and often require a cesarean section due to the increased risk of complications.
Choice D rationale
The transverse position, where the baby is lying sideways across the uterus, is not suitable for vaginal birth. This position typically requires a cesarean section to safely deliver the baby.