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A nurse is caring for a client who is at 39 weeks of gestation and is in active labor. The nurse locates the fetal heart tones above the client’s umbilicus at midline. The nurse should suspect that the fetus is in which of the following positions?

A.

Breech.

B.

Transverse.

C.

Cephalic.

D.

Oblique.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A rationale

 

Breech presentation means the fetus’s buttocks or feet are positioned to be delivered first. Fetal heart tones are often heard above the umbilicus in this position.

 

Choice B rationale

 

Transverse lie means the fetus is lying horizontally in the uterus. Fetal heart tones would typically be heard at the sides of the abdomen.

 

Choice C rationale

 

Cephalic presentation means the fetus’s head is positioned to be delivered first. Fetal heart tones are usually heard below the umbilicus in this position.

 

Choice D rationale

 

Oblique lie means the fetus is positioned diagonally in the uterus. Fetal heart tones can be variable depending on the exact position.


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View Related questions

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A rationale

A non-stress test (NST) is a common initial assessment for decreased fetal movement. It evaluates fetal heart rate patterns in response to fetal movements, providing information about fetal well-being and oxygenation.

Choice B rationale

A biophysical profile (BPP) is a more comprehensive assessment that includes an NST and ultrasound evaluation of fetal movements, tone, breathing, and amniotic fluid volume. It may be ordered if the NST results are non-reassuring or if there are other concerns.

Choice C rationale

An ultrasound can provide valuable information about fetal growth, amniotic fluid volume, and placental function. It may be used in conjunction with other tests but is not the first-line assessment for decreased fetal movement.

Choice D rationale

Amniocentesis is an invasive procedure used for specific indications, such as genetic testing or assessing fetal lung maturity. It is not typically used for initial assessment of decreased fetal movement.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A rationale

The occiput anterior (OA) position is considered the optimal fetal position for vaginal birth. In this position, the baby’s head is down, and the back of the head (occiput) is facing the mother’s front. This position allows for the most efficient passage through the birth canal.

Choice B rationale

The occiput posterior (OP) position, where the baby’s head is down but facing the mother’s back, can lead to a longer and more painful labor. It is not considered optimal for vaginal birth.

Choice C rationale

Breech positions, where the baby’s buttocks or feet are positioned to come out first, are not optimal for vaginal birth and often require a cesarean section due to the increased risk of complications.

Choice D rationale

The transverse position, where the baby is lying sideways across the uterus, is not suitable for vaginal birth. This position typically requires a cesarean section to safely deliver the baby.

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