A nurse is caring for a client who is at 12 weeks of gestation and has hyperemesis gravidarum. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?
Decreased BP.
WBC count 15,000/mm³ (5,000 to 15,000/mm³).
Pruritus.
Hemoglobin 18 g/dL (11 to 16 g/dL). .
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale
"Decreased BP.”. This is correct because hyperemesis gravidarum can lead to dehydration, which in turn can cause hypotension (decreased blood pressure).
Choice B rationale
"WBC count 15,000/mm³ (5,000 to 15,000/mm³).”. This is incorrect because while WBC count can be elevated due to stress or infection, it is not a primary manifestation of hyperemesis gravidarum.
Choice C rationale
"Pruritus.”. This is incorrect because pruritus is not commonly associated with hyperemesis gravidarum. It is more likely related to other conditions like cholestasis of pregnancy.
Choice D rationale
"Hemoglobin 18 g/dL (11 to 16 g/dL).”. This is incorrect because an elevated hemoglobin level is not a direct manifestation of hyperemesis gravidarum, although dehydration can potentially concentrate blood components and slightly elevate hemoglobin.
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Correct Answer is ["B","F","G"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Deep tendon reflexes of 1+ are considered normal for a postpartum client and do not typically require immediate follow-up. They indicate slight but definite muscle contraction with reinforcement.
Choice B rationale:
Lateral deviation of the uterus can indicate bladder distension, which can interfere with uterine contraction and increase the risk of postpartum hemorrhage. Immediate follow-up is necessary to address this issue.
Choice C rationale:
A blood pressure of 136/86 mm Hg is within the normal range for a postpartum client and does not require immediate follow-up unless there are other symptoms of preeclampsia or hypertension.
Choice D rationale:
A pain rating of 3 on a scale of 0 to 10 is mild and is expected in the postpartum period. It does not require immediate follow-up unless the pain is severe or unrelieved.
Choice E rationale:
Soft breasts in the immediate postpartum period are normal as milk production has not yet fully begun. This does not require immediate follow-up.
Choice F rationale:
A soft uterine tone indicates uterine atony, which can lead to postpartum hemorrhage. This requires immediate follow-up and intervention to ensure the uterus is contracting properly.
Choice G rationale:
A large amount of lochia rubra can be a sign of postpartum hemorrhage. Immediate follow-up is necessary to assess and manage bleeding.
Choice H rationale:
Peripheral edema of 2+ in the bilateral lower extremities is common in postpartum clients due to fluid shifts and does not typically require immediate follow-up unless accompanied by other concerning symptoms.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A maternal age of 30 years is not a significant risk factor for preeclampsia. Preeclampsia is more common in very young mothers or those over the age of 35.
Choice B rationale
A prepregnancy BMI of 19 is within the normal range and is not considered a risk factor for preeclampsia, which is more commonly associated with higher BMI or obesity.
Choice C rationale
Being in the third pregnancy (multiparity) is not a strong risk factor for preeclampsia. The risk factors are more closely related to the individual's health conditions and first pregnancies.
Choice D rationale
Chronic hypertension is a well-known risk factor for preeclampsia as it indicates pre-existing cardiovascular issues that can predispose one to developing preeclampsia during preg