A nurse is caring for a client who inquires about a cervical cap for contraception. The nurse should identify that which of the following manifestations is a contraindication for the use of a cervical cap?
History of methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus.
History of thrombophlebitis.
History of toxic shock syndrome.
Type 1 diabetes mellitus.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale
History of methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) is not directly related to the use of a cervical cap. The main concern with a cervical cap is infection, but MRSA history alone doesn't make it a contraindication for this form of contraception.
Choice B rationale
History of thrombophlebitis is more of a concern with hormonal contraceptives due to the risk of blood clots. A cervical cap does not involve hormones, so this condition is not a direct contraindication.
Choice C rationale
History of toxic shock syndrome (TSS) is a contraindication for the use of a cervical cap because the cap can increase the risk of developing TSS again. TSS is associated with prolonged use of barrier contraceptives, which can create an environment that fosters the growth of bacteria responsible for TSS.
Choice D rationale
Type 1 diabetes mellitus is not a direct contraindication for the use of a cervical cap. The concern with diabetes is often related to blood glucose control and potential infections, but it doesn't specifically contraindicate the use of cervical caps.
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Correct Answer is ["B","F","G"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Deep tendon reflexes of 1+ are considered normal for a postpartum client and do not typically require immediate follow-up. They indicate slight but definite muscle contraction with reinforcement.
Choice B rationale:
Lateral deviation of the uterus can indicate bladder distension, which can interfere with uterine contraction and increase the risk of postpartum hemorrhage. Immediate follow-up is necessary to address this issue.
Choice C rationale:
A blood pressure of 136/86 mm Hg is within the normal range for a postpartum client and does not require immediate follow-up unless there are other symptoms of preeclampsia or hypertension.
Choice D rationale:
A pain rating of 3 on a scale of 0 to 10 is mild and is expected in the postpartum period. It does not require immediate follow-up unless the pain is severe or unrelieved.
Choice E rationale:
Soft breasts in the immediate postpartum period are normal as milk production has not yet fully begun. This does not require immediate follow-up.
Choice F rationale:
A soft uterine tone indicates uterine atony, which can lead to postpartum hemorrhage. This requires immediate follow-up and intervention to ensure the uterus is contracting properly.
Choice G rationale:
A large amount of lochia rubra can be a sign of postpartum hemorrhage. Immediate follow-up is necessary to assess and manage bleeding.
Choice H rationale:
Peripheral edema of 2+ in the bilateral lower extremities is common in postpartum clients due to fluid shifts and does not typically require immediate follow-up unless accompanied by other concerning symptoms.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Deep-vein thrombosis (DVT) is a contraindication for diaphragm use due to the increased risk of thromboembolic events with estrogen-based contraceptives.
Choice B rationale
Tobacco use, although a risk factor for cardiovascular disease, is not a direct contraindication for diaphragm use, which is a non-hormonal contraceptive method.
Choice C rationale
Recurrent urinary tract infections are a contraindication for diaphragm use due to the risk of infection exacerbation from device insertion.
Choice D rationale
History of positive group B streptococcus B-hemolytic is not a contraindication for diaphragm use; it typically relates to pregnancy and neonatal infection risk.