A nurse is caring for a client who inquires about a cervical cap for contraception. The nurse should identify that which of the following manifestations is a contraindication for the use of a cervical cap?
History of methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus.
History of thrombophlebitis.
History of toxic shock syndrome.
Type 1 diabetes mellitus.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale
History of methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) is not directly related to the use of a cervical cap. The main concern with a cervical cap is infection, but MRSA history alone doesn't make it a contraindication for this form of contraception.
Choice B rationale
History of thrombophlebitis is more of a concern with hormonal contraceptives due to the risk of blood clots. A cervical cap does not involve hormones, so this condition is not a direct contraindication.
Choice C rationale
History of toxic shock syndrome (TSS) is a contraindication for the use of a cervical cap because the cap can increase the risk of developing TSS again. TSS is associated with prolonged use of barrier contraceptives, which can create an environment that fosters the growth of bacteria responsible for TSS.
Choice D rationale
Type 1 diabetes mellitus is not a direct contraindication for the use of a cervical cap. The concern with diabetes is often related to blood glucose control and potential infections, but it doesn't specifically contraindicate the use of cervical caps.
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Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
"Monitor perineal pads for clots.”. This is incorrect because while monitoring for clots is important, it does not address the underlying issue causing the fundal deviation.
Choice B rationale
"Assist the client to empty her bladder.”. This is correct because a full bladder can cause the uterus to deviate and impede uterine involution. Emptying the bladder helps the uterus to contract properly and return to its normal position.
Choice C rationale
"Notify the provider.”. This is incorrect because the immediate action should be to address the potential cause of the deviation (a full bladder), which can be managed by the nurse.
Choice D rationale
"Administer a prescribed analgesic.”. This is incorrect because administering pain relief does not address the cause of the fundal deviation and does not alleviate the potential issue.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Chemotherapy is not a standard treatment for a molar pregnancy unless malignancy is suspected or confirmed. It is usually monitored with regular HCG levels and follow-up.
Choice B rationale
Attending a support group is crucial for emotional support and ensuring that the client has access to resources and information about recovery and future pregnancy planning.
Choice C rationale
Home palliative services are not typically required after a molar pregnancy unless there are specific complications that necessitate such care. The focus is generally on monitoring HCG levels and follow-up.
Choice D rationale
An amniocentesis is not needed after a molar pregnancy. Follow-up includes HCG level monitoring to ensure all molar tissue is gone and to watch for malignancy, not amniocentesis.