A nurse is caring for a client who inquires about a cervical cap for contraception. The nurse should identify that which of the following manifestations is a contraindication for the use of a cervical cap?
History of methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus.
History of thrombophlebitis.
History of toxic shock syndrome.
Type 1 diabetes mellitus.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale
History of methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) is not directly related to the use of a cervical cap. The main concern with a cervical cap is infection, but MRSA history alone doesn't make it a contraindication for this form of contraception.
Choice B rationale
History of thrombophlebitis is more of a concern with hormonal contraceptives due to the risk of blood clots. A cervical cap does not involve hormones, so this condition is not a direct contraindication.
Choice C rationale
History of toxic shock syndrome (TSS) is a contraindication for the use of a cervical cap because the cap can increase the risk of developing TSS again. TSS is associated with prolonged use of barrier contraceptives, which can create an environment that fosters the growth of bacteria responsible for TSS.
Choice D rationale
Type 1 diabetes mellitus is not a direct contraindication for the use of a cervical cap. The concern with diabetes is often related to blood glucose control and potential infections, but it doesn't specifically contraindicate the use of cervical caps.
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Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Leukorrhea, a normal vaginal discharge, increases during pregnancy due to hormonal changes. It's not indicative of prenatal complications at 41 weeks of gestation.
Choice B rationale
Shortness of breath is common in late pregnancy due to the enlarged uterus pressing against the diaphragm. It is not necessarily a sign of a prenatal complication at this stage.
Choice C rationale
Non-pitting ankle edema is often seen in late pregnancy due to fluid retention and increased pressure on the veins. It is typically benign and not a sign of serious complications.
Choice D rationale
Blurred vision can indicate a serious prenatal complication such as preeclampsia, which is characterized by high blood pressure and can pose significant risks to both mother and baby if not managed properly. .
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Testing for GBS at around 36 weeks of gestation is standard practice to identify carriers and prevent neonatal GBS infections through intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis if necessary.
Choice B rationale
Cesarean birth is not indicated solely based on a positive GBS status. The primary intervention is intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis to reduce the risk of neonatal infection.
Choice C rationale
Routine antibiotic administration during the last weeks of pregnancy is not standard practice; antibiotics are given during labor if GBS is present to prevent transmission to the baby.
Choice D rationale
GBS infection does not cause hearing loss in newborns. The primary concern is neonatal sepsis, pneumonia, or meningitis, not hearing loss.