A nurse is caring for a client who inquires about a cervical cap for contraception. The nurse should identify that which of the following manifestations is a contraindication for the use of a cervical cap?
History of methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus.
History of thrombophlebitis.
History of toxic shock syndrome.
Type 1 diabetes mellitus.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale
History of methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) is not directly related to the use of a cervical cap. The main concern with a cervical cap is infection, but MRSA history alone doesn't make it a contraindication for this form of contraception.
Choice B rationale
History of thrombophlebitis is more of a concern with hormonal contraceptives due to the risk of blood clots. A cervical cap does not involve hormones, so this condition is not a direct contraindication.
Choice C rationale
History of toxic shock syndrome (TSS) is a contraindication for the use of a cervical cap because the cap can increase the risk of developing TSS again. TSS is associated with prolonged use of barrier contraceptives, which can create an environment that fosters the growth of bacteria responsible for TSS.
Choice D rationale
Type 1 diabetes mellitus is not a direct contraindication for the use of a cervical cap. The concern with diabetes is often related to blood glucose control and potential infections, but it doesn't specifically contraindicate the use of cervical caps.
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Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
This finding indicates fetal distress. Recurrent variable decelerations in the fetal heart rate (FHR) can be a sign of umbilical cord compression, which can compromise fetal oxygenation.
Choice B rationale
Uterine contractions every 6 minutes are within the normal range for the latent phase of labor and do not indicate fetal risk.
Choice C rationale
Moderate variability of the FHR is a reassuring sign and suggests that the fetus is well-oxygenated and neurologically intact.
Choice D rationale
Uterine contractions lasting 30 to 45 seconds are typical for the latent phase of labor and do not indicate fetal distress.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A client whose labor lasted for 6 hours is not necessarily a priority unless other complications are present. Duration of labor alone does not indicate an urgent need for immediate attention postpartum.
Choice B rationale
A client who received magnesium sulfate during labor should be seen first due to the potential for serious side effects such as respiratory depression, hypotonia in the newborn, and maternal complications. Magnesium sulfate is used to prevent seizures in clients with preeclampsia and requires close monitoring.
Choice C rationale
A client with a history of oligohydramnios needs monitoring, but this condition alone does not take precedence over the immediate postpartum risks associated with magnesium sulfate.
Choice D rationale
A client whose newborn is having difficulty latching-on needs support and assistance with breastfeeding. While important, this issue is not as urgent as monitoring the effects of magnesium sulfate in the client described in Choice B.