A nurse is caring for a client who has had a hemorrhagic stroke following a ruptured cerebral aneurysm. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?
Gradual onset of headache.
Changes in consciousness.
Gradual onset of several hours.
History of neurologic deficits lasting less than 1 hr.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason:
A gradual onset of headache is more characteristic of other types of headaches or conditions, such as tension headaches or migraines. Hemorrhagic strokes, particularly those caused by a ruptured cerebral aneurysm, typically present with a sudden and severe headache, often described as the “worst headache of my life.” This sudden onset is due to the rapid accumulation of blood in the brain, which increases intracranial pressure and causes immediate symptoms.
Choice B reason:
Changes in consciousness are a common manifestation of a hemorrhagic stroke. The sudden bleeding into the brain can disrupt normal brain function, leading to symptoms such as confusion, lethargy, or loss of consciousness. These changes occur rapidly and are a key indicator of a serious neurological event. The nurse should be vigilant for any alterations in the client’s level of consciousness, as this can signify worsening of the condition and the need for immediate medical intervention.
Choice C reason:
A gradual onset of several hours is not typical for hemorrhagic strokes. These strokes usually present with sudden and severe symptoms due to the abrupt rupture of a blood vessel in the brain. The rapid increase in intracranial pressure from the bleeding causes immediate and severe symptoms, rather than a slow progression over hours.
Choice D reason:
A history of neurologic deficits lasting less than 1 hour is more indicative of a transient ischemic attack (TIA), also known as a mini-stroke. TIAs are temporary and resolve within a short period without causing permanent damage. In contrast, a hemorrhagic stroke caused by a ruptured cerebral aneurysm results in immediate and severe symptoms that do not resolve quickly and require urgent medical attention.
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View Related questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice a reason:
A negative-pressure isolation room is designed to prevent the spread of airborne infectious diseases by ensuring that air flows into the room but not out of it. This type of room is typically used for patients with diseases such as tuberculosis, measles, or COVID-19, which are spread through airborne particles. Scabies, however, is spread through direct skin-to-skin contact or by sharing personal items like bedding or clothing. Therefore, a negative-pressure isolation room is not necessary for a patient with scabies, as the primary mode of transmission is not airborne.
Choice b reason:
A private room is the most appropriate setting for a client with scabies. Scabies is highly contagious and can spread through direct skin-to-skin contact or by sharing personal items. Placing the client in a private room helps to prevent the spread of the mites to other patients and staff. In a private room, the client can be isolated effectively, and healthcare workers can implement contact precautions, such as wearing gloves and gowns, to minimize the risk of transmission. This approach ensures that the client receives appropriate care while protecting others from potential exposure.
Choice c reason:
A semi-private room with a client who has pediculosis capitis (head lice) is not suitable for a client with scabies. Although both conditions involve infestations, they are caused by different parasites and have different modes of transmission. Pediculosis capitis is spread through direct contact with infested hair or personal items, while scabies is spread through prolonged skin-to-skin contact. Placing a client with scabies in a semi-private room with another infested patient increases the risk of cross-contamination and further spread of both conditions. Therefore, this option is not recommended.
Choice d reason:
A positive-pressure isolation room is designed to protect immunocompromised patients from airborne pathogens by ensuring that air flows out of the room but not into it. This type of room is used for patients who need to be protected from infections, such as those undergoing chemotherapy or with severe immune deficiencies. Since scabies is not an airborne disease and does not pose a risk to immunocompromised patients in this manner, a positive-pressure isolation room is not appropriate for a client with scabies. The primary concern with scabies is preventing direct contact transmission, which is best managed in a private room.
Correct Answer is ["B","E"]
Explanation
Choice A reason:
“I may experience urinary incontinence.” This statement is correct. Urinary incontinence is a common symptom of MS due to the disease’s impact on the nervous system. The client does not need additional teaching regarding this statement.
Choice B reason:
“I should not exercise because this may trigger an exacerbation.” This statement indicates a need for additional teaching. Regular exercise is beneficial for individuals with MS and can help improve strength, mobility, and overall well-being. The nurse should educate the client on safe and appropriate exercise routines.
Choice C reason:
“I need to check the water temperature before I take a bath.” This statement is correct. Clients with MS may have impaired sensation and are at risk for burns if the water is too hot. Checking the water temperature is a necessary precaution.
Choice D reason:
“I may experience visual disturbances.” This statement is correct. Visual disturbances, such as blurred vision or double vision, are common symptoms of MS. The client does not need additional teaching regarding this statement.
Choice E reason:
“I should alternate the eye patch every other day to help with the double vision.” This statement indicates a need for additional teaching. While using an eye patch can help manage double vision, it should be alternated more frequently, typically every few hours, to prevent strain on the covered eye.