A nurse is caring for a client who has benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). The nurse should expect which of the following findings?
Painful urination
Urge incontinence
Critically elevated prostate-specific antigen (PSA) level
Difficulty starting the flow of urine
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A: Painful urination
Painful urination, or dysuria, is not a typical symptom of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). BPH primarily affects the flow of urine due to the enlargement of the prostate gland, which can obstruct the urethra. While BPH can cause discomfort, it does not usually result in painful urination. Painful urination is more commonly associated with urinary tract infections (UTIs) or other conditions affecting the urinary tract.
Choice B: Urge incontinence
Urge incontinence, characterized by a sudden and intense urge to urinate followed by involuntary loss of urine, can occur in some cases of BPH but is not the most common symptom. BPH typically causes symptoms related to urinary obstruction, such as difficulty starting urination, weak urine stream, and incomplete bladder emptying. Urge incontinence may develop if the bladder becomes overactive due to the obstruction, but it is not a primary symptom.
Choice C: Critically elevated prostate-specific antigen (PSA) level
While an elevated prostate-specific antigen (PSA) level can be associated with BPH, it is not a definitive finding. PSA levels can be elevated due to various conditions, including prostate cancer, prostatitis, and BPH. However, a critically elevated PSA level is more concerning for prostate cancer rather than BPH. Therefore, while PSA testing is useful in the evaluation of prostate conditions, it is not specific to BPH.
Choice D: Difficulty starting the flow of urine
Difficulty starting the flow of urine, also known as hesitancy, is a hallmark symptom of BPH. The enlarged prostate gland can compress the urethra, making it difficult for urine to pass through. This can lead to a weak urine stream, straining to urinate, and a feeling of incomplete bladder emptying. These symptoms are collectively known as lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS) and are commonly associated with BPH.
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Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A: Obtain a 12-lead ECG
Obtaining a 12-lead ECG is a critical action when a client has a potassium level of 6.8 mEq/L, which indicates hyperkalemia. Hyperkalemia can cause serious cardiac dysrhythmias, including life-threatening arrhythmias such as ventricular fibrillation or asystole. An ECG can help detect these abnormalities early, allowing for prompt intervention to prevent cardiac complications. The ECG may show characteristic changes such as peaked T waves, widened QRS complexes, and prolonged PR intervals, which are indicative of hyperkalemia.
Choice B: Suggest that the client use a salt substitute
Suggesting that the client use a salt substitute is not appropriate in this situation. Many salt substitutes contain potassium chloride, which can further increase the potassium level in the blood. For a client with hyperkalemia, it is crucial to avoid additional sources of potassium to prevent exacerbating the condition. Therefore, recommending a salt substitute could be harmful.
Choice C: Advise the client to add citrus juices and bananas to her diet
Advising the client to add citrus juices and bananas to her diet is also inappropriate. Both citrus juices and bananas are high in potassium and can contribute to an increase in serum potassium levels. For a client with hyperkalemia, it is essential to limit dietary potassium intake to help lower the potassium levels in the blood. Encouraging the consumption of high-potassium foods would be counterproductive and potentially dangerous.
Choice D: Obtain a blood sample for a serum sodium level
While obtaining a blood sample for a serum sodium level can be part of a comprehensive assessment, it is not the immediate priority in managing hyperkalemia. The primary concern with a potassium level of 6.8 mEq/L is the risk of cardiac dysrhythmias. Therefore, obtaining an ECG to monitor the heart’s electrical activity is the most urgent and appropriate action. Once the immediate risk is addressed, further laboratory tests, including serum sodium levels, can be conducted as part of the overall assessment and management plan.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason:
Removing all objects that contain latex from the client’s room is important for clients with a latex allergy, not a penicillin allergy. Latex allergies can cause severe reactions, including anaphylaxis, but this action is not relevant to a penicillin allergy.
Choice B reason:
Verifying that the client’s medication prescriptions do not include cephalosporin is crucial because cephalosporins can have cross-reactivity with penicillin. Clients with a penicillin allergy may also react to cephalosporins, so it is essential to avoid prescribing these antibiotics.
Choice C reason:
Notifying dietary services to adjust the client’s diet is not directly related to managing a penicillin allergy. Dietary adjustments are more relevant for clients with food allergies or specific dietary restrictions.
Choice D reason:
Having the client purchase a medication alert bracelet to wear in the hospital is a good practice for general safety, but it is not an immediate action the nurse should take during the admission process. The primary focus should be on ensuring that the client’s medications do not include penicillin or related antibiotics.