A nurse is caring for a client who has been taking captopril for one year. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse review? (Select all that apply.)
Potassium level.
WBC with differential.
BUN level.
Hemoglobin level.
Glucose level.
Correct Answer : A,B,C
Choice A rationale
Potassium level should be reviewed because captopril can cause hyperkalemia due to its effect on aldosterone secretion.
Choice B rationale
WBC with differential should be reviewed because captopril can cause neutropenia or agranulocytosis, especially in patients with renal impairment or collagen vascular disease.
Choice C rationale
BUN level should be reviewed because captopril can affect renal function, leading to increased BUN levels.
Choice D rationale
Hemoglobin level is not typically affected by captopril, so it is not a priority for review.
Choice E rationale
Glucose level is not typically affected by captopril, so it is not a priority for review.
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Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic used primarily to reduce intracranial pressure (ICP) and treat cerebral edema. It does not affect thyroxine levels, which are related to thyroid function. Thyroxine levels are regulated by the thyroid gland and are not influenced by mannitol administration.
Choice B rationale
Mannitol is not used to correct atrial flutter. Atrial flutter is a type of arrhythmia that requires specific antiarrhythmic medications or procedures such as cardioversion. Mannitol’s primary action is to increase osmotic pressure in the kidneys, leading to diuresis and reduction of fluid in tissues, including the brain.
Choice C rationale
Mannitol is effective in reducing intracranial pressure by creating an osmotic gradient that draws fluid from the brain tissue into the bloodstream, which is then excreted by the kidneys. This reduction in intracranial pressure is a desired therapeutic outcome when treating conditions like cerebral edema.
Choice D rationale
Mannitol does not increase hemoglobin levels. Hemoglobin levels are influenced by factors such as red blood cell production and destruction, iron levels, and overall health status. Mannitol’s mechanism of action is related to fluid balance and diuresis, not hematopoiesis.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A standing prescription is an order that applies to all patients who meet certain criteria and is not specific to a single administration. It is used for routine treatments and does not apply to a one-time pre-transfusion medication.
Choice B rationale
A stat prescription is an urgent order that requires immediate administration, typically within minutes. It is used for emergency situations and does not apply to a pre-transfusion medication given one hour before the procedure.
Choice C rationale
A single prescription is a one-time order for a specific medication to be given at a specific time. In this case, diphenhydramine 50 mg by mouth once, one hour prior to transfusion, fits the definition of a single prescription.
Choice D rationale
A PRN (pro re nata) prescription is an order for medication to be given as needed based on the patient’s condition. It is not applicable to a scheduled pre-transfusion medication.