A nurse is caring for a client who has a systemic fungal infection and is receiving IV amphotericin B deoxycholate. During previous infusions, the client developed a fever and chills. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Apply a warming blanket prior to administration.
Infuse the medication over 1 hr.
Administer diphenhydramine prior to administration.
Monitor vital signs once per hour following administration.
The Correct Answer is C
Rationale:
A. Applying a warming blanket is not appropriate, as it may exacerbate the client's reaction to the infusion and is not a standard pre-medication strategy.
B. Infusing amphotericin B deoxycholate over 1 hour is too rapid; it is typically infused over 2-6 hours to minimize adverse effects.
C. Administering diphenhydramine prior to the administration of amphotericin B can help prevent or alleviate infusion-related reactions such as fever and chills, which the client experienced during previous infusions.
D. Monitoring vital signs once per hour following administration is insufficient; vital signs should be monitored more frequently during and immediately after the infusion to promptly detect and address any adverse reactions.
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Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker that typically decreases heart rate rather than increases it. Therefore, an increased heart rate would not be a therapeutic response to this medication.
B. Verapamil works to lower blood pressure by inhibiting calcium influx into the vascular smooth muscle. An increase in blood pressure would not be an expected therapeutic outcome.
C. While verapamil may help with heart function, the primary therapeutic response is not specifically measured by decreased pulmonary congestion. This outcome may not be directly observable in the early treatment phases post-myocardial infarction.
D. Verapamil is effective in reducing anginal pain by decreasing myocardial oxygen demand through lowering heart rate and contractility. Thus, a decrease in anginal pain would be a direct therapeutic response to the medication.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Rationale:
A. "Leuprolide decreases the production of testosterone.": Leuprolide is a gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) agonist that works by reducing testosterone production, which is essential for the growth of prostate cancer cells. This mechanism slows the progression of the cancer.
B. "Leuprolide kills cells at all stages of cellular division.": This describes how chemotherapy drugs work, but leuprolide does not function by directly killing cancer cells at different stages of their division.
C. "Leuprolide increases estrogen levels in your body to counteract the cancer cells.": Leuprolide does not increase estrogen levels. Instead, it reduces testosterone levels, which is more effective in managing prostate cancer.
D. "Leuprolide suppresses the pituitary gland's production of growth hormone to decrease cancer cellular growth.": Leuprolide suppresses the production of luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), not growth hormone, to decrease testosterone levels.