A nurse is caring for a client who has a systemic fungal infection and is receiving IV amphotericin B deoxycholate. During previous infusions, the client developed a fever and chills. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Apply a warming blanket prior to administration.
Infuse the medication over 1 hr.
Administer diphenhydramine prior to administration.
Monitor vital signs once per hour following administration.
The Correct Answer is C
Rationale:
A. Applying a warming blanket is not appropriate, as it may exacerbate the client's reaction to the infusion and is not a standard pre-medication strategy.
B. Infusing amphotericin B deoxycholate over 1 hour is too rapid; it is typically infused over 2-6 hours to minimize adverse effects.
C. Administering diphenhydramine prior to the administration of amphotericin B can help prevent or alleviate infusion-related reactions such as fever and chills, which the client experienced during previous infusions.
D. Monitoring vital signs once per hour following administration is insufficient; vital signs should be monitored more frequently during and immediately after the infusion to promptly detect and address any adverse reactions.
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Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Magnesium 2.5 mEq/L: A magnesium level slightly above the normal range does not indicate an immediate need to discontinue clozapine, as this level is not related to the adverse effects of the drug.
B. Potassium 5.4 mEq/L: While elevated potassium levels can pose a health risk, this is not a direct indicator to discontinue clozapine. Potassium levels can be managed with other interventions.
C. WBC 2,500/mm³: Clozapine carries a risk of agranulocytosis, a condition where the white blood cell (WBC) count becomes dangerously low, leading to severe infection risk. A WBC count of 2,500/mm³ is below the normal range and indicates the need to discontinue clozapine immediately.
D. Sodium 134 mEq/L: A slightly low sodium level is not typically related to clozapine use and does not warrant discontinuation of the medication.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Acetylcysteine is not indicated for gastrointestinal bleeding; other treatments are used for that condition.
B. Acute bronchospasm is treated with bronchodilators rather than acetylcysteine.
C. Morphine toxicity requires other interventions, such as opioid antagonists (e.g., naloxone), and acetylcysteine is not effective in this case.
D. Acetylcysteine is specifically indicated for acetaminophen toxicity as it acts as an antidote, replenishing glutathione stores and preventing liver damage from toxic metabolites.