A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for vancomycin 1 g IV intermittent infusion over 30 min every 12 hr. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Request a serum trough level blood draw for 60 min after completion of infusion.
Change the infusion site after each dose administration.
Contact the provider for prescription clarification.
Request a serum peak level to be drawn 30 min prior to infusion.
The Correct Answer is A
Rationale:
A. Requesting a serum trough level blood draw for 60 minutes after the completion of the infusion is appropriate for monitoring the therapeutic levels of vancomycin and ensuring it is within the desired range to prevent toxicity.
B. Changing the infusion site after each dose administration is not necessary unless there is an issue such as infiltration or phlebitis; typically, the site can be used for multiple doses if it remains patent and functional.
C. Contacting the provider for prescription clarification is not needed unless there are specific concerns about the medication or the administration protocol; in this case, the order is clear and standard.
D. Requesting a serum peak level to be drawn 30 minutes prior to infusion is incorrect, as the peak level should be drawn 30 minutes after the completion of the infusion, not before the next dose.
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Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker that typically decreases heart rate rather than increases it. Therefore, an increased heart rate would not be a therapeutic response to this medication.
B. Verapamil works to lower blood pressure by inhibiting calcium influx into the vascular smooth muscle. An increase in blood pressure would not be an expected therapeutic outcome.
C. While verapamil may help with heart function, the primary therapeutic response is not specifically measured by decreased pulmonary congestion. This outcome may not be directly observable in the early treatment phases post-myocardial infarction.
D. Verapamil is effective in reducing anginal pain by decreasing myocardial oxygen demand through lowering heart rate and contractility. Thus, a decrease in anginal pain would be a direct therapeutic response to the medication.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Rationale:
A. A respiratory rate of 24/min is elevated and may suggest respiratory distress, but it is not a specific adverse effect of propranolol.
B. An oral temperature of 38.9° C (102° F) indicates fever, which is not a typical adverse effect of propranolol.
C. A blood pressure of 118/78 mm Hg is within normal limits and does not indicate an adverse effect of propranolol, which is often used to manage hypertension.
D. An apical pulse of 50/min indicates bradycardia, a known adverse effect of propranolol, which can occur due to its action on the heart rate.