A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for hydrochlorothiazide for the initial treatment of hypertension. Which of the following should the nurse recognize as the action of this medication?
Hydrochlorothiazide prevents angiotensin II from binding with receptor sites.
Hydrochlorothiazide decreases the reabsorption of sodium and water in the distal renal tubule.
Hydrochlorothiazide blocks stimulation of beta receptors in the sympathetic nervous system.
Hydrochlorothiazide promotes the movement of extravascular fluids into the vascular compartment.
The Correct Answer is B
Rationale:
A. Hydrochlorothiazide does not prevent angiotensin II from binding with receptor sites; this action is typically associated with ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.
B. Hydrochlorothiazide decreases the reabsorption of sodium and water in the distal renal tubule, which leads to increased urine output and decreased blood volume, effectively lowering blood pressure.
C. Hydrochlorothiazide does not block beta receptors; this is the mechanism of action for beta-blockers.
D. Hydrochlorothiazide does not promote the movement of extravascular fluids into the vascular compartment; instead, it reduces blood volume by promoting diuresis.
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Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Rationale:
A. A decrease in the amount of gastric acid production: Alosetron is not used to decrease gastric acid production. This effect is more associated with medications such as proton pump inhibitors or H2 blockers.
B. A decrease in the frequency of defecation: Alosetron is used to treat irritable bowel syndrome with diarrhea (IBS-D) by reducing bowel movement frequency and improving stool consistency.
C. An increase in gastric motility: Alosetron works by decreasing intestinal motility, which helps reduce diarrhea, not by increasing it.
D. An increase in the absorption of water into the intestine: Alosetron does not specifically increase water absorption into the intestine. Its primary effect is slowing intestinal transit to reduce diarrhea.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Delaying the incident report until the end of the current shift can compromise the timely documentation of the error and any necessary interventions that may arise.
B. While it's important to notify risk management, the priority should be to document the incident immediately after assessing the client to ensure a complete record of the error.
C. Completing the incident report as soon as the assessment is complete is the most appropriate action, allowing for prompt documentation of the error and any potential effects on patient care.
D. Informing the previous nurse is necessary for communication, but it should not delay the completion of the incident report, which is crucial for tracking errors and improving safety protocols.