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A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for hydrochlorothiazide for the initial treatment of hypertension. Which of the following should the nurse recognize as the action of this medication?

A.

Hydrochlorothiazide prevents angiotensin II from binding with receptor sites.

B.

Hydrochlorothiazide decreases the reabsorption of sodium and water in the distal renal tubule.

C.

Hydrochlorothiazide blocks stimulation of beta receptors in the sympathetic nervous system.

D.

Hydrochlorothiazide promotes the movement of extravascular fluids into the vascular compartment.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Rationale:

 

A. Hydrochlorothiazide does not prevent angiotensin II from binding with receptor sites; this action is typically associated with ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

 

B. Hydrochlorothiazide decreases the reabsorption of sodium and water in the distal renal tubule, which leads to increased urine output and decreased blood volume, effectively lowering blood pressure.

 

C. Hydrochlorothiazide does not block beta receptors; this is the mechanism of action for beta-blockers.

 

D. Hydrochlorothiazide does not promote the movement of extravascular fluids into the vascular compartment; instead, it reduces blood volume by promoting diuresis.


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View Related questions

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Rationale:

A. "Leuprolide decreases the production of testosterone.": Leuprolide is a gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) agonist that works by reducing testosterone production, which is essential for the growth of prostate cancer cells. This mechanism slows the progression of the cancer.

B. "Leuprolide kills cells at all stages of cellular division.": This describes how chemotherapy drugs work, but leuprolide does not function by directly killing cancer cells at different stages of their division.

C. "Leuprolide increases estrogen levels in your body to counteract the cancer cells.": Leuprolide does not increase estrogen levels. Instead, it reduces testosterone levels, which is more effective in managing prostate cancer.

D. "Leuprolide suppresses the pituitary gland's production of growth hormone to decrease cancer cellular growth.": Leuprolide suppresses the production of luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), not growth hormone, to decrease testosterone levels.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Rationale:

A. Requesting a serum trough level blood draw for 60 minutes after the completion of the infusion is appropriate for monitoring the therapeutic levels of vancomycin and ensuring it is within the desired range to prevent toxicity.

B. Changing the infusion site after each dose administration is not necessary unless there is an issue such as infiltration or phlebitis; typically, the site can be used for multiple doses if it remains patent and functional.

C. Contacting the provider for prescription clarification is not needed unless there are specific concerns about the medication or the administration protocol; in this case, the order is clear and standard.

D. Requesting a serum peak level to be drawn 30 minutes prior to infusion is incorrect, as the peak level should be drawn 30 minutes after the completion of the infusion, not before the next dose.

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