A nurse is caring for a client who has a peanut allergy. The client ate peanut butter and is now experiencing anaphylaxis. Which of the following physiological responses should the nurse expect to occur?
Blood pressure increases.
Blood vessels become more permeable.
Blood vessels constrict.
White blood cells are destroyed.
The Correct Answer is B
A. Blood pressure does not increase during anaphylaxis; instead, it typically decreases due to vasodilation and fluid leakage.
B. During anaphylaxis, blood vessels become more permeable, leading to the release of fluids into the tissues, which causes swelling and contributes to hypotension.
C. Blood vessels do not constrict during anaphylaxis; rather, they dilate as a part of the allergic response, resulting in decreased blood pressure.
D. While there is an immune response during anaphylaxis, white blood cells are not destroyed; rather, they are activated to respond to the allergen, leading to inflammation and other systemic effects.
Free Nursing Test Bank
- Free Pharmacology Quiz 1
- Free Medical-Surgical Quiz 2
- Free Fundamentals Quiz 3
- Free Maternal-Newborn Quiz 4
- Free Anatomy and Physiology Quiz 5
- Free Obstetrics and Pediatrics Quiz 6
- Free Fluid and Electrolytes Quiz 7
- Free Community Health Quiz 8
- Free Promoting Health across the Lifespan Quiz 9
- Free Multidimensional Care Quiz 10
View Related questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Furosemide is a diuretic and is not indicated in the acute management of anaphylaxis.
B. Methylprednisolone is a corticosteroid that may be used later to reduce inflammation but is not the first-line treatment in anaphylaxis.
C. Dobutamine is a medication used to treat heart failure and shock but does not address the acute allergic reaction.
D. Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylactic shock, as it acts quickly to reverse severe allergic reactions by causing vasoconstriction, bronchodilation, and inhibiting further release of mediators from mast cells.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Hepatitis is a concern for individuals with HIV, but it is not specifically indicated by a low CD4-T-cell count.
B. A CD4-T-cell count of 150/mm³ indicates severe immunosuppression, making the client highly susceptible to opportunistic infections like tuberculosis, which is common in individuals with HIV.
C. While gonorrhea is a risk for sexually active individuals, it is not specifically related to the low CD4-T-cell count.
D. Chlamydia is also a sexually transmitted infection, but similar to gonorrhea, it is not directly linked to the immunocompromised state indicated by the CD4-T-cell count.