A nurse is caring for a client who had a vaginal delivery 1 day ago. The nurse determines that the client's fundus is firm, located 2 fingerbreadths above the umbilicus, and deviated to the left. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Monitor perineal pads for clots.
Assist the client to empty her bladder.
Notify the provider.
Administer a prescribed analgesic.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale
"Monitor perineal pads for clots.”. This is incorrect because while monitoring for clots is important, it does not address the underlying issue causing the fundal deviation.
Choice B rationale
"Assist the client to empty her bladder.”. This is correct because a full bladder can cause the uterus to deviate and impede uterine involution. Emptying the bladder helps the uterus to contract properly and return to its normal position.
Choice C rationale
"Notify the provider.”. This is incorrect because the immediate action should be to address the potential cause of the deviation (a full bladder), which can be managed by the nurse.
Choice D rationale
"Administer a prescribed analgesic.”. This is incorrect because administering pain relief does not address the cause of the fundal deviation and does not alleviate the potential issue.
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Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Leukorrhea, a normal vaginal discharge, increases during pregnancy due to hormonal changes. It's not indicative of prenatal complications at 41 weeks of gestation.
Choice B rationale
Shortness of breath is common in late pregnancy due to the enlarged uterus pressing against the diaphragm. It is not necessarily a sign of a prenatal complication at this stage.
Choice C rationale
Non-pitting ankle edema is often seen in late pregnancy due to fluid retention and increased pressure on the veins. It is typically benign and not a sign of serious complications.
Choice D rationale
Blurred vision can indicate a serious prenatal complication such as preeclampsia, which is characterized by high blood pressure and can pose significant risks to both mother and baby if not managed properly. .
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
"You will be tested again for GBS at about 36 weeks of gestation.”. This is correct because retesting for GBS at 35-37 weeks of gestation is standard practice to identify colonization status before delivery, which helps in planning intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis.
Choice B rationale
"If you test positive for GBS, the provider will need to perform a cesarean birth.”. This is incorrect because GBS colonization is not an indication for cesarean delivery. The primary intervention is antibiotic administration during labor to prevent neonatal infection.
Choice C rationale
"You will take an antibiotic during the last 2 weeks of pregnancy to avoid transferring GBS to your baby.”. This is incorrect because antibiotics are given intrapartum (during labor) to prevent GBS transmission, not during the last weeks of pregnancy.
Choice D rationale
"This infection can cause your baby to experience hearing loss at birth.”. This is incorrect because GBS infection primarily causes sepsis, pneumonia, and meningitis in neonates, not hearing loss.