A nurse is caring for a client scheduled for a functional assessment who asks, “What is the purpose of this assessment?” How should the nurse most appropriately respond to the client?
“It is a test that determines which activities you feel most comfortable performing.”
“It is a tool that is used to determine your maximum level of self-sufficiency.”
“It is a tool that is used to assess what services you will need a home health aide to perform for you.”
“It is a tool used by insurance companies to determine qualifications for medical reimbursement.”
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason:
“It is a test that determines which activities you feel most comfortable performing” is not entirely accurate. While comfort with activities may be assessed, the primary goal of a functional assessment is to evaluate the client’s ability to perform activities of daily living (ADLs) and instrumental activities of daily living (IADLs).
Choice B reason:
“It is a tool that is used to determine your maximum level of self-sufficiency.” This response accurately reflects the purpose of a functional assessment. The assessment evaluates the client’s ability to perform ADLs and IADLs independently, which helps determine the level of assistance they may need.
Choice C reason:
“It is a tool that is used to assess what services you will need a home health aide to perform for you” is partially correct but not comprehensive. While the assessment can help identify the need for home health aide services, its primary purpose is to evaluate overall self-sufficiency and functional status.
Choice D reason:
“It is a tool used by insurance companies to determine qualifications for medical reimbursement” is not the primary purpose of a functional assessment. Although the results may be used for insurance purposes, the main goal is to assess the client’s functional abilities and needs.
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Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason:
Organizing an influenza immunization campaign is an example of primary prevention, which aims to prevent the onset of illness or injury before it occurs. Secondary prevention focuses on early detection and intervention to prevent the progression of disease or injury.
Choice B reason:
Helping plant workers identify signs of carpal tunnel syndrome is a secondary prevention strategy. It involves early detection of symptoms and providing education on how to manage and seek treatment for the condition. Early intervention can prevent the progression of carpal tunnel syndrome and reduce the risk of long-term complications.
Choice C reason:
Teaching plant workers about proper lifting techniques is an example of primary prevention. It aims to prevent injuries by educating workers on safe practices. While important, it does not fall under secondary prevention, which focuses on early detection and intervention.
Choice D reason:
Collaborating with a physical therapist to develop programs for injured employees to return to work is an example of tertiary prevention. Tertiary prevention focuses on rehabilitation and managing long-term health conditions to improve quality of life and prevent further complications.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice a reason:
A negative-pressure isolation room is designed to prevent the spread of airborne infectious diseases by ensuring that air flows into the room but not out of it. This type of room is typically used for patients with diseases such as tuberculosis, measles, or COVID-19, which are spread through airborne particles. Scabies, however, is spread through direct skin-to-skin contact or by sharing personal items like bedding or clothing. Therefore, a negative-pressure isolation room is not necessary for a patient with scabies, as the primary mode of transmission is not airborne.
Choice b reason:
A private room is the most appropriate setting for a client with scabies. Scabies is highly contagious and can spread through direct skin-to-skin contact or by sharing personal items. Placing the client in a private room helps to prevent the spread of the mites to other patients and staff. In a private room, the client can be isolated effectively, and healthcare workers can implement contact precautions, such as wearing gloves and gowns, to minimize the risk of transmission. This approach ensures that the client receives appropriate care while protecting others from potential exposure.
Choice c reason:
A semi-private room with a client who has pediculosis capitis (head lice) is not suitable for a client with scabies. Although both conditions involve infestations, they are caused by different parasites and have different modes of transmission. Pediculosis capitis is spread through direct contact with infested hair or personal items, while scabies is spread through prolonged skin-to-skin contact. Placing a client with scabies in a semi-private room with another infested patient increases the risk of cross-contamination and further spread of both conditions. Therefore, this option is not recommended.
Choice d reason:
A positive-pressure isolation room is designed to protect immunocompromised patients from airborne pathogens by ensuring that air flows out of the room but not into it. This type of room is used for patients who need to be protected from infections, such as those undergoing chemotherapy or with severe immune deficiencies. Since scabies is not an airborne disease and does not pose a risk to immunocompromised patients in this manner, a positive-pressure isolation room is not appropriate for a client with scabies. The primary concern with scabies is preventing direct contact transmission, which is best managed in a private room.