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A nurse is caring for a client in a cardiac unit. Using the five criteria for ECG analysis information, the nurse interprets the client's ECG as which of the following rhythm interpretations?Heart Rate: 59 bpmRhythm: RegularPresence of P waves: One P wave for every QRS complexPR interval: 0.20 secondsQRS complex duration: 0.10 seconds

Ventricular tachycardia

Sinus tachycardia

Sinus bradycardia

Normal sinus rhythm

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A) Ventricular tachycardia: Ventricular tachycardia is characterized by a rapid heart rate exceeding 100 bpm, typically arising from abnormal ventricular activity. In this case, the heart rate is 59 bpm, which does not support this interpretation. Additionally, ventricular tachycardia usually presents with wide QRS complexes and no discernible P waves, neither of which is true in this scenario.

B) Sinus tachycardia: Sinus tachycardia is defined by a heart rate exceeding 100 bpm originating from the sinoatrial (SA) node, with a regular rhythm and normal P waves. The heart rate of 59 bpm in this client is too low for a diagnosis of sinus tachycardia, making this option incorrect.

C) Sinus bradycardia: Sinus bradycardia occurs when the heart rate is less than 60 bpm, with a regular rhythm and a normal PR interval and QRS duration. The provided data shows a heart rate of 59 bpm, a regular rhythm, one P wave for every QRS complex, a PR interval of 0.20 seconds, and a QRS duration of 0.10 seconds, which aligns perfectly with the criteria for sinus bradycardia.

D) Normal sinus rhythm: Normal sinus rhythm typically presents with a heart rate of 60-100 bpm, a regular rhythm, and appropriate P waves for each QRS complex. Given the heart rate of 59 bpm, this does not meet the criteria for normal sinus rhythm, as it falls below the acceptable range.

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A. Ambulating soon after surgery B. Flexing her ankles C. Massaging her legs D. Elevating her feet

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A) Ambulating soon after surgery: Early ambulation is encouraged for postoperative clients to promote circulation and reduce the risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE). Mobilizing helps prevent stasis of blood in the veins, making this an appropriate action rather than an unsafe one.

B) Flexing her ankles: Ankle flexion exercises can help improve venous return and circulation in the lower extremities. This action is generally recommended to prevent VTE, making it a safe and beneficial practice for postoperative clients.

C) Massaging her legs: Massaging the legs is considered unsafe for a client at risk for VTE. This action can dislodge a thrombus (blood clot) if one is present, leading to potential complications such as pulmonary embolism. Therefore, the nurse should instruct the client to avoid leg massages.

D) Elevating her feet: Elevating the feet is a recommended practice to promote venous return and reduce swelling in postoperative clients. This action can help prevent VTE and is generally considered safe and beneficial.

A. Tachycardia B. End-stage kidney failure C. Hypertension D. Asthma

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A) Tachycardia: Propranolol is often used to manage tachycardia by reducing heart rate and controlling excessive adrenergic activity. Therefore, this diagnosis would not warrant clarification of the order; it is an appropriate use of the medication.

B) End-stage kidney failure: While caution is necessary when administering medications in clients with renal impairment, propranolol is primarily metabolized by the liver, and its use is not contraindicated in end-stage kidney failure. However, renal function can affect dosing, so monitoring would be important, but this diagnosis alone wouldn't require clarification.

C) Hypertension: Propranolol is commonly prescribed to manage hypertension, making this diagnosis a valid reason for the medication order. The use of propranolol in this context would not need clarification.

D) Asthma: Propranolol is a non-selective beta-blocker, which can cause bronchoconstriction and exacerbate asthma symptoms. This diagnosis would require the nurse to clarify the order, as beta-blockers are generally contraindicated in clients with asthma due to the risk of respiratory complications. If the client has reactive airway disease, an alternative medication should be considered.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative and is at risk for developing venous thromboembolism (VTE). The nurse should instruct the client to avoid which of the following unsafe actions?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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