A nurse is caring for a client brought to the Emergency Department as one of the first victims of a train accident. The nurse assesses the client, noting a respiratory rate of 38, a weak, rapid pulse, and uncontrolled bleeding. Using NATO guidelines, the nurse assigns which priority tag?
Red tag
Black tag
Green tag
Yellow tag
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A: Red tag
A red tag is assigned to patients who require immediate medical attention and intervention to survive. These patients have life-threatening injuries but have a high chance of survival if treated promptly. In this scenario, the client has a respiratory rate of 38, a weak and rapid pulse, and uncontrolled bleeding. These symptoms indicate severe physiological distress and potential shock, necessitating immediate intervention to prevent death. According to NATO triage guidelines, such critical conditions warrant a red tag to prioritize urgent care1.
Choice B: Black tag
A black tag is used for patients who are deceased or have injuries so severe that survival is unlikely even with immediate medical intervention. This category is also known as “expectant” and is used to allocate resources to those with a higher chance of survival. The client in this scenario, despite having severe symptoms, is not described as being beyond the possibility of survival, thus a black tag would not be appropriate1.
Choice C: Green tag
A green tag is assigned to patients with minor injuries who can wait for medical treatment without immediate risk to life. These patients are often referred to as “walking wounded.” The client’s symptoms of a high respiratory rate, weak and rapid pulse, and uncontrolled bleeding are far too severe to be classified under this category. Assigning a green tag would delay critical care, potentially leading to fatal outcomes1.
Choice D: Yellow tag
A yellow tag is for patients who have serious injuries but whose treatment can be delayed without immediate risk to life. These patients need medical attention but are stable enough to wait for a short period. Given the client’s symptoms, particularly the uncontrolled bleeding and signs of shock, delaying treatment could result in rapid deterioration. Therefore, a yellow tag would not be suitable in this case1.
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Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason:
Secondary prevention involves early detection and treatment of disease to halt its progression. Examples include screening tests and early interventions. Advising a client with osteoporosis to consume dairy products is not aimed at early detection but rather at preventing the onset of complications by ensuring adequate calcium intake.
Choice B reason:
Primary prevention aims to prevent the onset of disease or injury before it occurs. This includes measures such as vaccinations, lifestyle modifications, and dietary recommendations. Advising a client with osteoporosis to consume three servings of milk or dairy products daily is a primary prevention strategy. It helps to maintain bone density and prevent fractures by ensuring adequate calcium and vitamin D intake.
Choice C reason:
Proactive prevention is not a standard term used in public health or medical practice. The recognized levels of prevention are primary, secondary, and tertiary. Therefore, this option is not applicable in this context.
Choice D reason:
Tertiary prevention focuses on managing and mitigating the effects of an existing disease to prevent further complications and improve quality of life. This includes rehabilitation and ongoing treatment for chronic conditions. While advising a client with osteoporosis to consume dairy products can be part of managing the condition, it is primarily a preventive measure to avoid further bone loss and fractures, aligning more with primary prevention.
Correct Answer is ["A","B","C","E"]
Explanation
Choice A reason:
Monitoring vital signs of postoperative clients is a task that can be safely delegated to an experienced LPN. LPNs are trained to monitor and report vital signs, which is a routine and essential part of postoperative care. This task does not require the advanced assessment skills of an RN, making it appropriate for delegation.
Choice B reason:
Administering routine medications to stable clients is within the scope of practice for LPNs. They are trained to administer medications and monitor clients for adverse reactions. As long as the clients are stable and the medications are routine, this task can be delegated to an LPN.
Choice C reason:
Performing wound care on a client with a Stage III pressure ulcer is a task that an experienced LPN can perform. LPNs are skilled in wound care and can manage complex dressings and treatments under the supervision of an RN. This delegation allows the RN to focus on more complex tasks that require their advanced skills.
Choice D reason:
Developing a teaching plan for a client newly diagnosed with Type II Diabetes is a task that should not be delegated to an LPN. This task requires comprehensive knowledge of diabetes management, patient education, and individualized care planning, which are within the RN’s scope of practice. The RN should develop the teaching plan and may involve the LPN in reinforcing the education.
Choice E reason:
Providing oral care to an unconscious client is a task that can be delegated to an experienced LPN. Oral care is essential for preventing infections and maintaining hygiene, and LPNs are trained to perform this care safely and effectively.