A nurse is caring for a client admitted to the intensive care unit for a cardiac dysrhythmia. The nurse understands the prescribed calcium channel blocker has which of the following mechanisms of action?
Acts on the beta cells within the heart and lungs to regulate cardiac rhythm
Increases heart rate and increases myocardial contractility
Reduces the contractility and conductivity of the heart
Increase oxygen to the systemic circulation
The Correct Answer is C
A) "Acts on the beta cells within the heart and lungs to regulate cardiac rhythm.": This statement is incorrect because calcium channel blockers do not primarily act on beta cells. Instead, they block calcium channels in cardiac and smooth muscle, which affects heart contractility and conductivity.
B) "Increases heart rate and increases myocardial contractility.": Calcium channel blockers typically do the opposite; they decrease heart rate and myocardial contractility by inhibiting calcium entry into the heart muscle cells. Therefore, this statement does not accurately describe their mechanism of action.
C) "Reduces the contractility and conductivity of the heart.": This statement accurately reflects the action of calcium channel blockers. By blocking calcium entry, these medications decrease myocardial contractility and slow down electrical conduction through the heart, which can help manage dysrhythmias.
D) "Increase oxygen to the systemic circulation.": While calcium channel blockers can improve blood flow and reduce myocardial oxygen demand by decreasing heart workload, their primary action does not directly focus on increasing oxygen delivery to systemic circulation. Their primary role is in managing heart contractility and rhythm.
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Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A) Inhibits platelet aggregation: The primary benefit of aspirin following a myocardial infarction (MI) is its ability to inhibit platelet aggregation. By preventing platelets from clumping together, aspirin reduces the risk of further clot formation, which is critical in preventing additional cardiac events and improving overall cardiovascular outcomes.
B) Anti-inflammatory properties: While aspirin does have anti-inflammatory effects, this is not the primary reason it is prescribed after an MI. The focus in the post-MI setting is on its role in preventing clot formation rather than addressing inflammation.
C) Antiemetic: Aspirin is not an antiemetic and does not alleviate nausea or vomiting. Clients experiencing gastrointestinal issues or nausea would require different medications for those symptoms.
D) Anti-pyretic: Although aspirin can reduce fever, this effect is not the primary concern in the post-MI setting. The immediate goal is to improve heart health and prevent further thrombotic events, making platelet inhibition the most relevant benefit.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A) Pancytopenia: While some medications can cause pancytopenia, it is not a common or direct side effect of alteplase. This condition involves a reduction in red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets, and is not typically associated with thrombolytics.
B) Hypertension: Alteplase is not known to cause hypertension. In fact, the goal of administering alteplase in the context of a pulmonary embolism is to dissolve the clot and restore normal blood flow, which may help stabilize blood pressure.
C) Hypokalemia: This condition, characterized by low potassium levels, is not a common side effect of alteplase. There are other medications that may cause electrolyte imbalances, but alteplase itself is not typically linked to hypokalemia.
D) Internal bleeding: This is a significant risk associated with alteplase, as it is a thrombolytic agent that dissolves clots. The nurse should closely monitor for signs of internal bleeding, such as changes in vital signs, unexplained bruising, or blood in urine or stool. This is the most critical side effect to assess for in a client receiving alteplase