A nurse is caring for a client admitted to the intensive care unit for a cardiac dysrhythmia. The nurse understands the prescribed calcium channel blocker has which of the following mechanisms of action?
Acts on the beta cells within the heart and lungs to regulate cardiac rhythm
Increases heart rate and increases myocardial contractility
Reduces the contractility and conductivity of the heart
Increase oxygen to the systemic circulation
The Correct Answer is C
A) "Acts on the beta cells within the heart and lungs to regulate cardiac rhythm.": This statement is incorrect because calcium channel blockers do not primarily act on beta cells. Instead, they block calcium channels in cardiac and smooth muscle, which affects heart contractility and conductivity.
B) "Increases heart rate and increases myocardial contractility.": Calcium channel blockers typically do the opposite; they decrease heart rate and myocardial contractility by inhibiting calcium entry into the heart muscle cells. Therefore, this statement does not accurately describe their mechanism of action.
C) "Reduces the contractility and conductivity of the heart.": This statement accurately reflects the action of calcium channel blockers. By blocking calcium entry, these medications decrease myocardial contractility and slow down electrical conduction through the heart, which can help manage dysrhythmias.
D) "Increase oxygen to the systemic circulation.": While calcium channel blockers can improve blood flow and reduce myocardial oxygen demand by decreasing heart workload, their primary action does not directly focus on increasing oxygen delivery to systemic circulation. Their primary role is in managing heart contractility and rhythm.
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Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A) Atenolol: This is a beta-blocker that can be used for various cardiac conditions, including hypertension and certain arrhythmias, but it is not typically the first-line treatment for acute life-threatening ventricular dysrhythmias in the emergency setting.
B) Lisinopril: This medication is an ACE inhibitor primarily used to manage hypertension and heart failure. It does not address acute ventricular dysrhythmias and would not be appropriate for immediate use in this scenario.
C) Adenosine: While adenosine is effective for certain types of supraventricular tachycardia, it is not indicated for life-threatening ventricular dysrhythmias. It has a very short duration of action and is not the drug of choice in this context.
D) Procainamide: This antiarrhythmic medication is specifically used to treat life-threatening ventricular dysrhythmias. It works by stabilizing the cardiac membrane and is indicated in emergency situations to manage these types of arrhythmias. Therefore, preparing procainamide is the most appropriate action for the nurse in this scenario.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A) Dry, non-productive cough: One of the most common side effects associated with ACE inhibitors is a dry, non-productive cough. This occurs due to the accumulation of bradykinin, a peptide that can increase in the body when ACE is inhibited. Nurses should assess for this symptom, as it may require changing the medication if it becomes bothersome to the client.
B) Nausea and vomiting: While nausea and vomiting can occur with various medications, they are not specific or common side effects of ACE inhibitors. If these symptoms do arise, they may be due to other factors and should be investigated further.
C) Hypokalemia and vomiting: ACE inhibitors are more commonly associated with hyperkalemia (elevated potassium levels) rather than hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is important, but vomiting is not a typical side effect of ACE inhibitors.
D) Epistaxis and headache: Although headaches can occur with many medications, epistaxis (nosebleeds) is not a common side effect associated with ACE inhibitors. While headache assessment is appropriate, the dry cough is the more characteristic and important symptom to monitor in clients on these medications.