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A nurse is caring for a 76-year-old male client in the medical unit

 

History and Physical

The client is a 76-year-old male with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and hypertension. He presented to the emergency department with a 3-day history of productive cough, fever, and shortness of breath. He has a 40-pack-year smoking history and lives alone. He denies recent travel or sick contacts.

 

Nurses’ Notes

Day 1, 1800: The client was admitted to the medical unit with suspected pneumonia. Crackles were auscultated bilaterally in the lower lung fields, and breath sounds were diminished. A saline infusion was initiated at 50 mL/hour. Vancomycin IV piggyback (IVPB) was started. Sputum and blood cultures were obtained and sent to the lab.

 

Diagnostic Results

Day 2: Sputum culture positive for pneumococcus. Chest x-ray showed focal consolidation in the bilateral lower lobes, suggestive of pneumonia.

 

Vital Signs

  • Temperature: 38.5°C
  • Heart Rate: 110 bpm
  • Respiratory Rate: 24 breaths/min
  • Blood Pressure: 150/90 mmHg
  • Oxygen Saturation: 88% on room air

 

Physical Examination Results

On physical examination, the client appeared in moderate respiratory distress. He had crackles bilaterally in the lower lung fields and diminished breath sounds throughout. His skin was warm and diaphoretic. He was using accessory muscles to breathe and had a productive cough with greenish sputum.

 

Provider’s Prescriptions

  • Continue saline infusion at 50 mL/hour
  • Discontinue vancomycin
  • Start ceftriaxone 1g IV every 24 hours
  • Albuterol treatments by nebulizer every 4 to 6 hours
  • Increase oral fluids
  • Obtain arterial blood gas (ABG)

 

Imaging Studies

Chest x-ray showed focal consolidation in the bilateral lower lobes, suggestive of pneumonia.

 

Question: Which of the following does the nurse anticipate the healthcare provider to prescribe during morning rounds? Select 4 findings.

A.

Computerized tomography (CT) scan of the chest

B.

Albuterol treatments by nebulizer every 4 to 6 hours

C.

Chest x-ray

D.

Increase oral fluids

E.

Arterial blood gas (ABG)

Question Solution

Correct Answer : B,C,D,E

Choice A rationale:

 

 A computerized tomography (CT) scan of the chest is not typically required for routine pneumonia cases unless there are complications or the pneumonia is not responding to standard treatment. CT scans provide more detailed images but are usually reserved for more complex cases.

 

Choice B rationale:

 

 Albuterol treatments by nebulizer every 4 to 6 hours are appropriate for managing wheezing and bronchospasm associated with pneumonia, especially in a patient with a history of COPD. Albuterol helps open the airways, making it easier for the patient to breathe.

 

Choice C rationale:

 

 A chest x-ray is a standard diagnostic tool for pneumonia. It helps assess the extent of lung involvement and monitor the progression or resolution of the infection. Repeating the chest x-ray can help evaluate the effectiveness of the treatment.

 

 

Choice D rationale:

 

 Increasing oral fluids is essential for patients with pneumonia to help thin mucus, making it easier to expectorate. Adequate hydration also supports overall health and recovery.

 

Choice E rationale:

 

 Obtaining an arterial blood gas (ABG) is important for assessing the patient’s oxygenation and acid-base status. This information is crucial for managing respiratory distress and ensuring adequate oxygen delivery.


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View Related questions

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A rationale

An increase in B-lymphocytes and IgM is not how HIV suppresses the immune system. B-lymphocytes are responsible for producing antibodies, and IgM is a type of antibody. HIV primarily affects T-lymphocytes, specifically helper T-cells (CD4 cells), rather than B-lymphocytes.

Choice B rationale

The destruction of helper T-cells and CD4 cells is the primary mechanism by which HIV suppresses the immune system. HIV targets and infects these cells, leading to their depletion. Helper T-cells play a crucial role in coordinating the immune response, and their loss results in a weakened immune system, making the body more susceptible to infections and diseases.

Choice C rationale

A deficiency of cytotoxic T cells is not the primary mechanism by which HIV suppresses the immune system. Cytotoxic T cells (CD8 cells) are involved in directly killing infected cells, but the main impact of HIV is on helper T-cells (CD4 cells), which are essential for orchestrating the immune response.

Choice D rationale

The proliferation of suppressor T-cells is not how HIV suppresses the immune system. Suppressor T-cells (regulatory T cells) help regulate and control the immune response, but HIV primarily affects helper T-cells (CD4 cells), leading to their destruction and a weakened immune system.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Increasing the frequency of dressing changes may not be necessary and could potentially disrupt the healing process. The type of dressing used is more important for managing the wound.

Choice B rationale

Leaving the dressing off until consulting with the healthcare provider is not recommended as it can expose the wound to infection and delay healing.

Choice C rationale

Applying a hydrocolloidal gel dressing is appropriate for a stage 3 pressure injury with significant granulation. Hydrocolloidal dressings provide a moist environment that promotes healing and protects the wound from contamination.

Choice D rationale

Replacing the gauze with a transparent dressing may not provide the necessary moisture and protection for a stage 3 pressure injury. Hydrocolloidal dressings are more suitable for this type of wound.

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