A nurse is assessing client with advanced peripheral arterial disease (PAD). Which of the following findings would the nurse expect?
Shiny, hairless lower extremities.
Warm lower extremities.
Thin toenails.
Lower extremity bilateral pulse 3+
The Correct Answer is A
A) Shiny, hairless lower extremities: In advanced peripheral arterial disease (PAD), the skin on the lower extremities often appears shiny and hairless due to reduced blood flow. The lack of hair growth and the shiny appearance are indicative of ischemia and poor circulation, making this a common finding in clients with advanced PAD.
B) Warm lower extremities: This finding is not typical in advanced PAD. Due to compromised blood flow, the lower extremities are more likely to feel cool or cold to the touch rather than warm. Warm skin can indicate good blood flow, which is usually absent in cases of significant arterial disease.
C) Thin toenails: In advanced PAD, toenails may become thin and brittle due to insufficient blood supply, which can lead to impaired nail growth. This change is consistent with the overall effects of reduced circulation and is an expected finding in clients with advanced PAD.
D) Lower extremity bilateral pulse 3+: A 3+ pulse indicates a strong and bounding pulse, which is not typically present in advanced PAD. In fact, patients with PAD often exhibit diminished or absent pulses in the affected extremities due to poor arterial circulation. Therefore, this finding does not align with the expected assessment results for advanced PAD.
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Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A) Tachycardia: Propranolol is often used to manage tachycardia by reducing heart rate and controlling excessive adrenergic activity. Therefore, this diagnosis would not warrant clarification of the order; it is an appropriate use of the medication.
B) End-stage kidney failure: While caution is necessary when administering medications in clients with renal impairment, propranolol is primarily metabolized by the liver, and its use is not contraindicated in end-stage kidney failure. However, renal function can affect dosing, so monitoring would be important, but this diagnosis alone wouldn't require clarification.
C) Hypertension: Propranolol is commonly prescribed to manage hypertension, making this diagnosis a valid reason for the medication order. The use of propranolol in this context would not need clarification.
D) Asthma: Propranolol is a non-selective beta-blocker, which can cause bronchoconstriction and exacerbate asthma symptoms. This diagnosis would require the nurse to clarify the order, as beta-blockers are generally contraindicated in clients with asthma due to the risk of respiratory complications. If the client has reactive airway disease, an alternative medication should be considered.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A) Vitamin A: While vitamin A can affect various bodily functions, it is not known to have a direct interaction with warfarin. Therefore, it is not considered incompatible with warfarin therapy.
B) Alprazolam: This medication, a benzodiazepine, is primarily used to treat anxiety and does not have a significant interaction with warfarin. Thus, it is not incompatible with warfarin therapy.
C) Vitamin K: This vitamin is a critical consideration when a client is on warfarin therapy. Warfarin works by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, so an increased intake of vitamin K can counteract the effects of warfarin, making this the correct answer. Clients on warfarin should maintain a consistent intake of vitamin K to prevent fluctuations in their INR levels.
D) Furosemide: This loop diuretic is used to manage conditions such as heart failure and edema. While it may affect electrolyte levels, it does not have a direct interaction that would render it incompatible with warfarin. It can be safely used alongside warfarin with appropriate monitoring.