A nurse is assessing a client's risk of breast cancer.
Which of the following would not be included in the education about risks?
Client's sister had breast cancer.
History of radiation exposure.
Currently taking oral contraceptives.
Age less than 25 years old.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale
A family history of breast cancer, particularly in a close relative like a sister, is a significant risk factor for breast cancer.
Choice B rationale
Exposure to radiation, particularly in the chest area, increases the risk of developing breast cancer.
Choice C rationale
Current use of oral contraceptives can slightly increase the risk of breast cancer, though the risk diminishes after stopping the pills.
Choice D rationale
Age less than 25 years is not a risk factor for breast cancer; risk increases with age.
Free Nursing Test Bank
- Free Pharmacology Quiz 1
- Free Medical-Surgical Quiz 2
- Free Fundamentals Quiz 3
- Free Maternal-Newborn Quiz 4
- Free Anatomy and Physiology Quiz 5
- Free Obstetrics and Pediatrics Quiz 6
- Free Fluid and Electrolytes Quiz 7
- Free Community Health Quiz 8
- Free Promoting Health across the Lifespan Quiz 9
- Free Multidimensional Care Quiz 10
View Related questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Decreased deep tendon reflexes are not typically associated with preeclampsia. In fact, hyperreflexia or increased deep tendon reflexes might be observed due to central nervous
system irritability in preeclampsia.
Choice B rationale
Uterine contractions are related to labor and not a specific indicator of preeclampsia. While they might occur simultaneously, they are not diagnostic of preeclampsia.
Choice C rationale
Proteinuria, the presence of excess protein in the urine, is a key diagnostic criterion for preeclampsia. It indicates kidney involvement and is used along with elevated blood pressure to diagnose this condition.
Choice D rationale
Increased blood glucose levels are associated with gestational diabetes rather than preeclampsia. Elevated blood pressure and proteinuria are the hallmarks of preeclampsia.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Administering antipyretics for maternal fever is essential as elevated maternal temperatures can increase the risk of fetal tachycardia and potentially lead to fetal distress. Reducing
fever promptly is a priority to stabilize both maternal and fetal conditions.
Choice B rationale
Preparing for an emergency cesarean section is not the immediate step for maternal fever; instead, managing the fever and assessing the need for further interventions based on the
overall clinical picture should be prioritized.
Choice C rationale
Administering glucocorticoids is indicated for promoting fetal lung maturity in preterm labor, not specifically for maternal fever management. Fever management requires antipyretics
and hydration.
Choice D rationale
Waiting 4 hours to recheck temperature delays prompt management, increasing risks for both the mother and fetus. Immediate action to reduce fever is crucial to prevent potential
complications.