A nurse is assessing a client who is 6 hr postpartum, tachycardic, and has cool skin. The client reports that they have been bleeding excessively. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Elevate the head of the client's bed.
Administer a dose of terbutaline.
Initiate oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula.
Initiate an infusion of oxytocin.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale
Elevating the head of the client’s bed is not indicated in this situation and does not address the issue of excessive bleeding postpartum.
Choice B rationale
Administering terbutaline, a medication used to manage preterm labor, is not relevant in the context of postpartum hemorrhage and excessive bleeding.
Choice C rationale
Initiating oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula may help with oxygenation but does not address the primary issue of excessive postpartum bleeding.
Choice D rationale
Initiating an infusion of oxytocin is the correct action as it helps contract the uterus and reduce postpartum bleeding, making it a crucial step in managing this situation.
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Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A shrill cry may indicate distress but isn't specifically related to hypoglycemia in newborns.
Choice B rationale
Weak peripheral pulses are more commonly associated with circulatory or cardiac issues rather than hypoglycemia.
Choice C rationale
Yellowish skin suggests jaundice, which is due to elevated bilirubin levels, not hypoglycemia.
Choice D rationale
Hypotonia, or decreased muscle tone, can be a sign of hypoglycemia in newborns, indicating a need to check blood glucose levels.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Manifestations of shock might not appear until a client loses 20% of their blood volume. This is because the body compensates for blood loss by increasing heart rate and
vasoconstriction, maintaining blood pressure until a significant amount of blood is lost.
Choice B rationale
Hemorrhagic shock will cause a decrease, not an increase, in a client's serum pH due to the accumulation of lactic acid from anaerobic metabolism, leading to metabolic acidosis.
Choice C rationale
The most accurate indication of organ perfusion is a client's urine output. Adequate urine output reflects sufficient renal blood flow and overall perfusion, making it a reliable indicator
of organ perfusion.
Choice D rationale
An infusion of 1 mL of lactated Ringers for each 1 mL of blood loss is not accurate. The typical fluid replacement ratio is 3:, meaning 3 mL of crystalloid solution (like lactated Ringers) is given for each 1 mL of blood loss to account for fluid distribution in the body.