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A nurse is assessing a client who is 6 hr postpartum, tachycardic, and has cool skin. The client reports that they have been bleeding excessively. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

A.

Elevate the head of the client's bed.

B.

Administer a dose of terbutaline.

C.

Initiate oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula.

D.

Initiate an infusion of oxytocin.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Choice A rationale

Elevating the head of the client’s bed is not indicated in this situation and does not address the issue of excessive bleeding postpartum.

 

Choice B rationale

Administering terbutaline, a medication used to manage preterm labor, is not relevant in the context of postpartum hemorrhage and excessive bleeding.

 

Choice C rationale

Initiating oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula may help with oxygenation but does not address the primary issue of excessive postpartum bleeding.

 

Choice D rationale

Initiating an infusion of oxytocin is the correct action as it helps contract the uterus and reduce postpartum bleeding, making it a crucial step in managing this situation.


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View Related questions

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A rationale

A positive pregnancy test is a probable sign of pregnancy as it indicates the presence of hCG, a hormone produced during pregnancy. However, it is not a presumptive sign, as other

conditions can also result in elevated hCG levels.

Choice B rationale

Amenorrhea, or the absence of menstrual periods, is a presumptive sign of pregnancy. It is one of the earliest indications that a woman may be pregnant, though it can also be

caused by other factors such as stress or hormonal imbalances.

Choice C rationale

Fetal heart sounds detected by Doppler ultrasound are a positive sign of pregnancy, confirming the presence of a fetus. This is not a presumptive sign as it is direct evidence of

pregnancy.

Choice D rationale

Chadwick's sign, a bluish discoloration of the cervix, vagina, and labia due to increased blood flow, is considered a probable sign of pregnancy. It is not a presumptive sign but rather

a physical change that occurs during pregnancy. .

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Wound infection usually presents with redness, warmth, and swelling, not just yellow exudate. The presence of yellow exudate alone typically does not indicate an infection.

Choice B rationale

Ulceration would involve the breakdown of skin or tissue, which is not indicated by the presence of yellow exudate. Ulcerations are more severe and painful than normal post-

circumcision healing.

Choice C rationale

Exposure to urine can cause irritation but does not typically result in yellow exudate. Proper diapering and cleaning prevent this irritation, and exudate is part of the healing process,

not a result of urine exposure.

Choice D rationale

Healing is indicated by the presence of yellow exudate, which is a normal part of the healing process post-circumcision. It signifies that the glans is recovering as expected. .

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