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A nurse is assessing a client who is 6 hr postpartum, tachycardic, and has cool skin. The client reports that they have been bleeding excessively. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

A.

Elevate the head of the client's bed.

B.

Administer a dose of terbutaline.

C.

Initiate oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula.

D.

Initiate an infusion of oxytocin.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Choice A rationale

Elevating the head of the client’s bed is not indicated in this situation and does not address the issue of excessive bleeding postpartum.

 

Choice B rationale

Administering terbutaline, a medication used to manage preterm labor, is not relevant in the context of postpartum hemorrhage and excessive bleeding.

 

Choice C rationale

Initiating oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula may help with oxygenation but does not address the primary issue of excessive postpartum bleeding.

 

Choice D rationale

Initiating an infusion of oxytocin is the correct action as it helps contract the uterus and reduce postpartum bleeding, making it a crucial step in managing this situation.


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View Related questions

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A rationale

A respiratory rate of 12/min indicates that the respiratory depression caused by magnesium sulfate toxicity has been effectively reversed by calcium gluconate. Normal respiratory rate in adults is 12-20 breaths per minute.

Choice B rationale

Absent deep tendon reflexes indicate ongoing magnesium sulfate toxicity. Calcium gluconate administration should restore normal reflexes, not cause their absence.

Choice C rationale

Slurred speech is a sign of magnesium sulfate toxicity. Effective treatment with calcium gluconate should improve neurological function and resolve symptoms like slurred speech.

Choice D rationale

A urine output of 22 mL/hr is below the normal range and suggests renal impairment or ongoing toxicity. Effective treatment should result in an increase in urine output to within the normal range (greater than 30 mL/hr).

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Fetal heart rate (FHR) accelerations with fetal movement are a sign of a healthy and reactive nonstress test. This indicates that the fetus is well-oxygenated and there is no immediate distress.

Choice B rationale

Late decelerations of the FHR occur with contractions and are a concern for fetal hypoxia. This does not indicate a reactive nonstress test and instead suggests the need for further evaluation.

Choice C rationale

Variable decelerations are abrupt decreases in FHR and could indicate umbilical cord compression. This does not correlate with a reactive nonstress test.

Choice D rationale

FHR pattern with minimal variability can be a sign of fetal distress or compromised oxygenation. It is not indicative of a reactive nonstress test.

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