A nurse is assessing a client who is 6 hr postpartum, tachycardic, and has cool skin. The client reports that they have been bleeding excessively. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Elevate the head of the client's bed.
Administer a dose of terbutaline.
Initiate oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula.
Initiate an infusion of oxytocin.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale
Elevating the head of the client’s bed is not indicated in this situation and does not address the issue of excessive bleeding postpartum.
Choice B rationale
Administering terbutaline, a medication used to manage preterm labor, is not relevant in the context of postpartum hemorrhage and excessive bleeding.
Choice C rationale
Initiating oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula may help with oxygenation but does not address the primary issue of excessive postpartum bleeding.
Choice D rationale
Initiating an infusion of oxytocin is the correct action as it helps contract the uterus and reduce postpartum bleeding, making it a crucial step in managing this situation.
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Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A positive pregnancy test is a probable sign of pregnancy as it indicates the presence of hCG, a hormone produced during pregnancy. However, it is not a presumptive sign, as other
conditions can also result in elevated hCG levels.
Choice B rationale
Amenorrhea, or the absence of menstrual periods, is a presumptive sign of pregnancy. It is one of the earliest indications that a woman may be pregnant, though it can also be
caused by other factors such as stress or hormonal imbalances.
Choice C rationale
Fetal heart sounds detected by Doppler ultrasound are a positive sign of pregnancy, confirming the presence of a fetus. This is not a presumptive sign as it is direct evidence of
pregnancy.
Choice D rationale
Chadwick's sign, a bluish discoloration of the cervix, vagina, and labia due to increased blood flow, is considered a probable sign of pregnancy. It is not a presumptive sign but rather
a physical change that occurs during pregnancy. .
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Cesarean birth is not necessarily required for GBS-positive clients as long as IV antibiotic prophylaxis is administered during labor to prevent transmission to the newborn.
Choice B rationale
IV antibiotic prophylaxis, typically with penicillin or ampicillin, is given to GBS-positive clients during labor to prevent neonatal GBS infection.
Choice C rationale
Obtaining a vaginal culture at 39 weeks of gestation is not necessary if the client was already screened and found positive for GBS at 36 weeks.
Choice D rationale
Metronidazole is used to treat bacterial vaginosis or trichomoniasis, not GBS infection; thus, it is not appropriate for this scenario. .