A nurse is assessing a client who is 4 hours postpartum following a vaginal delivery.
Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as the priority?
Brisk patellar deep tendon reflexes.
Moderate amount of lochia on the perineal pad over 2 hours.
Fundus at level of umbilicus.
Approximated edges of episiotomy.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale
Brisk patellar deep tendon reflexes can indicate central nervous system irritability, which might suggest conditions like preeclampsia or eclampsia if accompanied by other symptoms. It's critical to assess and monitor for further complications.
Choice B rationale
A moderate amount of lochia on the perineal pad over 2 hours is normal postpartum bleeding and does not typically indicate an immediate concern if within expected ranges.
Choice C rationale
A fundus at the level of the umbilicus is an expected finding 4 hours postpartum and indicates normal uterine involution. It is not a priority concern at this stage.
Choice D rationale
Approximated edges of an episiotomy indicate that the incision is healing properly without signs of infection or dehiscence. This is a normal and expected finding in the postpartum period.
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Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Assessing the client's blood pressure can help determine if there is a significant loss of blood and consequent hypotension. However, it is not the immediate first action to manage
heavy bleeding postpartum.
Choice B rationale
Assessing the bladder for distention is crucial as a full bladder can interfere with uterine contraction, potentially leading to increased bleeding. But, it isn't the first priority compared to
addressing the immediate bleeding.
Choice C rationale
Massaging the client's fundus is the priority action in this case. It helps to contract the uterus, thereby reducing bleeding. Uterine atony is the most common cause of postpartum
hemorrhage, and fundal massage is the first intervention to manage it.
Choice D rationale
Preparing to administer a prescription may be necessary, especially if uterotonics are required. However, this is a subsequent step after attempting to control the bleeding through
fundal massage.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Step 1 is: 12 mg ÷ 6 mg/ml.
Step 2 is: 12 ÷ 6 = 2 ml. Answer: 2 ml