A nurse is assessing a client who has placenta previa and is receiving fetal monitoring.
Which of the following clinical findings should the nurse expect?
Variable decelerations.
Painless vaginal bleeding.
Rigid abdomen.
Uterine tachysystole.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale
Variable decelerations are associated with umbilical cord compression, not placenta previa. In placenta previa, the placenta covers the cervical os, but it does not typically cause
variable decelerations on fetal monitoring.
Choice B rationale
Painless vaginal bleeding is a hallmark sign of placenta previa. This occurs because the placenta is located near or over the cervical os, leading to bleeding when the cervix dilates
or effaces.
Choice C rationale
A rigid abdomen is more indicative of placental abruption, where the placenta detaches prematurely from the uterine wall, causing pain and a tense abdomen, not typically seen in
placenta previa.
Choice D rationale
Uterine tachysystole is characterized by excessive uterine contractions and is not a clinical finding related to placenta previa. Tachysystole often results from excessive oxytocin use
or other uterine stimulants.
Free Nursing Test Bank
- Free Pharmacology Quiz 1
- Free Medical-Surgical Quiz 2
- Free Fundamentals Quiz 3
- Free Maternal-Newborn Quiz 4
- Free Anatomy and Physiology Quiz 5
- Free Obstetrics and Pediatrics Quiz 6
- Free Fluid and Electrolytes Quiz 7
- Free Community Health Quiz 8
- Free Promoting Health across the Lifespan Quiz 9
- Free Multidimensional Care Quiz 10
View Related questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Cesarean birth is not necessarily required for GBS-positive clients as long as IV antibiotic prophylaxis is administered during labor to prevent transmission to the newborn.
Choice B rationale
IV antibiotic prophylaxis, typically with penicillin or ampicillin, is given to GBS-positive clients during labor to prevent neonatal GBS infection.
Choice C rationale
Obtaining a vaginal culture at 39 weeks of gestation is not necessary if the client was already screened and found positive for GBS at 36 weeks.
Choice D rationale
Metronidazole is used to treat bacterial vaginosis or trichomoniasis, not GBS infection; thus, it is not appropriate for this scenario. .
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Informing the client to expect dark-colored stools is inaccurate for methotrexate administration. Dark stools typically indicate gastrointestinal bleeding, not a side effect of methotrexate.
Choice B rationale
Wearing two pairs of gloves is necessary when handling methotrexate as it is a cytotoxic drug. This protects healthcare workers from accidental exposure to the medication, which can be harmful.
Choice C rationale
Methotrexate is typically administered intramuscularly or orally, not subcutaneously. Administering it subcutaneously is incorrect and would not be effective for treating an ectopic pregnancy.
Choice D rationale
While it is essential to counsel the client on safe intercourse practices, instructing to use a condom for only 7 days post-administration is not specific or relevant to the methotrexate therapy for ectopic pregnancy.