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A nurse is assessing a client who has heart failure and is taking digoxin. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse report to the provider as an indication of digoxin toxicity?

A.

Vomiting.

B.

Dilated pupils.

C.

Bruising.

D.

Peripheral edema.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A rationale

 

Vomiting is a common sign of digoxin toxicity. Other symptoms include nausea, confusion, and visual disturbances.

 

Choice B rationale

 

Dilated pupils are not a typical sign of digoxin toxicity. Symptoms are more related to gastrointestinal and cardiac effects.

 

Choice C rationale

 

Bruising is not directly associated with digoxin toxicity. It may indicate other issues such as coagulopathy.

 

Choice D rationale

 

Peripheral edema is not a specific sign of digoxin toxicity. It is more commonly associated with heart failure.


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View Related questions

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Monitoring for weight gain is not a primary concern with pramlintide. Pramlintide is an amylin analog used to control postprandial blood glucose levels. Weight gain is not a typical side effect of pramlintide; instead, it may cause weight loss due to its effects on appetite suppression and delayed gastric emptying.

Choice B rationale

Monitoring for hypoglycemia for 3 hours after pramlintide administration is crucial. Pramlintide can increase the risk of insulin-induced hypoglycemia, especially in patients with type 1 diabetes. This is because pramlintide slows gastric emptying and suppresses glucagon secretion, which can lead to lower blood glucose levels.

Choice C rationale

Injecting pramlintide in the upper arm is not recommended. Pramlintide should be administered subcutaneously in the abdomen or thigh, not the upper arm, to ensure proper absorption and effectiveness.

Choice D rationale

Administering pramlintide 30 minutes prior to a meal is incorrect. Pramlintide should be administered immediately before meals to help control postprandial blood glucose levels effectively.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that rapidly reverses the effects of opioid overdose, including respiratory depression. It binds to opioid receptors and displaces the opioid molecules, reversing their effects.

Choice B rationale

Bisacodyl is a stimulant laxative used to treat constipation. It does not have any effect on opioid-induced respiratory depression.

Choice C rationale

Flumazenil is a benzodiazepine antagonist used to reverse the effects of benzodiazepines, not opioids. It is not effective in treating opioid-induced respiratory depression.

Choice D rationale

Pentazocine is an opioid agonist-antagonist used for pain relief. It does not reverse opioid-induced respiratory depression and can potentially worsen the condition.

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