A nurse is admitting a client who is at 9 weeks of gestation and in active labor when screened at 6 weeks of gestation.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Prepare for a cesarean birth.
Administer IV antibiotic prophylaxis.
Obtain a vaginal culture.
Administer metronidazole orally
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale
Preparing for a cesarean birth is not an immediate necessity unless there are complications that warrant such intervention. Cesarean births are typically reserved for situations where
vaginal delivery poses a risk to the mother or the baby.
Choice B rationale
Administering IV antibiotic prophylaxis is critical in preventing potential infections during the labor process, especially given the early gestation period. This helps in safeguarding both
the mother and the fetus from infections like group B streptococcus.
Choice C rationale
Obtaining a vaginal culture is generally done to check for infections such as bacterial vaginosis or sexually transmitted infections. However, it is not an immediate priority when the
patient is already in active labor.
Choice D rationale
Administering metronidazole orally is used to treat bacterial infections but is not an immediate action required in this scenario. Metronidazole may not be the most suitable choice
during labor as it does not provide immediate infection prevention.
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Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Elevating the head of the client’s bed is not indicated in this situation and does not address the issue of excessive bleeding postpartum.
Choice B rationale
Administering terbutaline, a medication used to manage preterm labor, is not relevant in the context of postpartum hemorrhage and excessive bleeding.
Choice C rationale
Initiating oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula may help with oxygenation but does not address the primary issue of excessive postpartum bleeding.
Choice D rationale
Initiating an infusion of oxytocin is the correct action as it helps contract the uterus and reduce postpartum bleeding, making it a crucial step in managing this situation.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Manifestations of shock might not appear until a client loses 20% of their blood volume. This is because the body compensates for blood loss by increasing heart rate and
vasoconstriction, maintaining blood pressure until a significant amount of blood is lost.
Choice B rationale
Hemorrhagic shock will cause a decrease, not an increase, in a client's serum pH due to the accumulation of lactic acid from anaerobic metabolism, leading to metabolic acidosis.
Choice C rationale
The most accurate indication of organ perfusion is a client's urine output. Adequate urine output reflects sufficient renal blood flow and overall perfusion, making it a reliable indicator
of organ perfusion.
Choice D rationale
An infusion of 1 mL of lactated Ringers for each 1 mL of blood loss is not accurate. The typical fluid replacement ratio is 3:, meaning 3 mL of crystalloid solution (like lactated Ringers) is given for each 1 mL of blood loss to account for fluid distribution in the body.