A nurse is admitting a client in labor who is HIV positive.
Which intervention is contraindicated for this client?
Application of external fetal monitors.
Prepare to administer antiviral medication.
Preparation for caesarean section delivery.
Application of internal fetal scalp electrode.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale
External fetal monitors are non-invasive and do not pose a risk of transmitting HIV from mother to baby. They are considered safe for monitoring fetal well-being in an HIV-positive mother.
Choice B rationale
Administering antiviral medication is essential in reducing the risk of mother-to-child transmission of HIV. It's a standard care practice for managing HIV-positive pregnant women.
Choice C rationale
Preparing for a caesarean section may be recommended to reduce the risk of vertical transmission of HIV during delivery, especially if the viral load is high.
Choice D rationale
Internal fetal scalp electrodes are contraindicated because they can create a portal for HIV transmission from mother to baby through small abrasions or punctures on the fetal scalp.
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Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Precipitous labor is a rapid labor that typically lasts less than 3 hours. While it can result in trauma and complications, it does not inherently increase the risk for an operative delivery,
which is more often related to other factors like fetal distress or failure to progress.
Choice B rationale
Postpartum hemorrhage (PPH) is a significant concern with precipitous labor due to the rapid and forceful contractions that can cause uterine atony, leading to increased bleeding
after birth.
Choice C rationale
In a precipitous labor, the rapid delivery can cause vaginal lacerations, not a decreased risk. The swift passage of the baby through the birth canal increases the risk of tears and
trauma.
Choice D rationale
Neonatal sepsis is related to infections acquired during delivery but is not specifically linked to the speed of labor. The primary concern in precipitous labor is maternal trauma and
hemorrhage, not infection.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Administering antipyretics for maternal fever is essential as elevated maternal temperatures can increase the risk of fetal tachycardia and potentially lead to fetal distress. Reducing
fever promptly is a priority to stabilize both maternal and fetal conditions.
Choice B rationale
Preparing for an emergency cesarean section is not the immediate step for maternal fever; instead, managing the fever and assessing the need for further interventions based on the
overall clinical picture should be prioritized.
Choice C rationale
Administering glucocorticoids is indicated for promoting fetal lung maturity in preterm labor, not specifically for maternal fever management. Fever management requires antipyretics
and hydration.
Choice D rationale
Waiting 4 hours to recheck temperature delays prompt management, increasing risks for both the mother and fetus. Immediate action to reduce fever is crucial to prevent potential
complications.