A nurse is admitting a client in labor who is HIV positive.
Which intervention is contraindicated for this client?
Application of external fetal monitors.
Prepare to administer antiviral medication.
Preparation for caesarean section delivery.
Application of internal fetal scalp electrode.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale
External fetal monitors are non-invasive and do not pose a risk of transmitting HIV from mother to baby. They are considered safe for monitoring fetal well-being in an HIV-positive mother.
Choice B rationale
Administering antiviral medication is essential in reducing the risk of mother-to-child transmission of HIV. It's a standard care practice for managing HIV-positive pregnant women.
Choice C rationale
Preparing for a caesarean section may be recommended to reduce the risk of vertical transmission of HIV during delivery, especially if the viral load is high.
Choice D rationale
Internal fetal scalp electrodes are contraindicated because they can create a portal for HIV transmission from mother to baby through small abrasions or punctures on the fetal scalp.
Free Nursing Test Bank
- Free Pharmacology Quiz 1
- Free Medical-Surgical Quiz 2
- Free Fundamentals Quiz 3
- Free Maternal-Newborn Quiz 4
- Free Anatomy and Physiology Quiz 5
- Free Obstetrics and Pediatrics Quiz 6
- Free Fluid and Electrolytes Quiz 7
- Free Community Health Quiz 8
- Free Promoting Health across the Lifespan Quiz 9
- Free Multidimensional Care Quiz 10
View Related questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Assessing the client's blood pressure can help determine if there is a significant loss of blood and consequent hypotension. However, it is not the immediate first action to manage
heavy bleeding postpartum.
Choice B rationale
Assessing the bladder for distention is crucial as a full bladder can interfere with uterine contraction, potentially leading to increased bleeding. But, it isn't the first priority compared to
addressing the immediate bleeding.
Choice C rationale
Massaging the client's fundus is the priority action in this case. It helps to contract the uterus, thereby reducing bleeding. Uterine atony is the most common cause of postpartum
hemorrhage, and fundal massage is the first intervention to manage it.
Choice D rationale
Preparing to administer a prescription may be necessary, especially if uterotonics are required. However, this is a subsequent step after attempting to control the bleeding through
fundal massage.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Irregular menses are not a direct risk factor for cervical cancer. While they can indicate hormonal imbalances, they are not strongly linked to cervical cancer risk.
Choice B rationale
Menopausal status and hormone replacement therapy (HRT) are more closely linked to breast cancer risks rather than cervical cancer. Cervical cancer is primarily associated with HPV infection.
Choice C rationale
Multiple sexual partners increase the risk of HPV infection, which is the primary cause of cervical cancer. HPV is a sexually transmitted infection that significantly raises the likelihood of developing cervical cancer.
Choice D rationale
A family history of breast cancer is more relevant to breast cancer risk rather than cervical cancer. Cervical cancer risk is more closely linked to HPV infection and sexual behavior.