A nurse is administering drugs to a 70-year-old patient who has a reduced plasma albumin level. When assessing the patient for therapeutic outcomes of drug therapy, the nurse will also be careful to observe for
possible drug toxicity.
decreased therapeutic effects.
altered drug absorption.
increased drug metabolism.
The Correct Answer is A
A. A reduced plasma albumin level can lead to increased free drug levels in the bloodstream, raising the risk of drug toxicity, particularly for highly protein-bound medications.
B. Decreased therapeutic effects are less likely because the decrease in albumin can lead to higher free drug concentrations, which may actually increase effects rather than decrease them.
C. Altered drug absorption is generally not directly influenced by plasma albumin levels; it relates more to gastrointestinal factors.
D. Increased drug metabolism is not a direct consequence of lower albumin levels; instead, the concern is primarily about increased free drug concentrations and potential toxicity.
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Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. "There can be an unsafe reaction between your antidepressant and St. John's wort, which is why taking them both is discouraged." is correct; St. John's wort can reduce the effectiveness of SSRIs and may increase the risk of serotonin syndrome, making it vital for the nurse to address this safety concern.
B. "Herbal remedies often contain unknown doses of the desired ingredient, which can be dangerous." is a valid point, but it does not specifically address the interaction with the client’s current medication.
C. "It's very important that you not take the St. John's wort at the same time of day as your antidepressant." is misleading; the concern is not just about timing but about taking both together at all.
D. "It's very important that you comply with your prescribed treatment." while true, this response does not directly address the specific risks associated with combining St. John's wort and citalopram.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. A return to normal respiratory rate, rhythm, and depth is correct because opioid antagonists, such as naloxone, are primarily used to reverse the respiratory depression caused by opioid overdose.
B. Management of alcohol withdrawal symptoms is incorrect; opioid antagonists do not address alcohol withdrawal.
C. A reduction in the client's rating of their pain is incorrect; opioid antagonists counteract the effects of opioids, which can result in increased pain levels rather than reduction.
D. Alertness and improve memory function is incorrect; while opioid antagonists may improve alertness by reversing sedation, the primary goal focuses on restoring respiratory function.