A nurse is administering bumetanide to a client who has ascites. The nurse should recognize that which of the following findings is an expected therapeutic effect of this medication?
Decreased excretion of urine sodium.
Increased urinary output.
Decreased serum glucose.
Increased blood pressure.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale
Decreased excretion of urine sodium is not an expected therapeutic effect of bumetanide. Bumetanide is a loop diuretic that works by inhibiting the reabsorption of sodium and chloride in the ascending loop of Henle, leading to increased excretion of sodium and water.
Choice B rationale
Increased urinary output is the expected therapeutic effect of bumetanide. As a potent loop diuretic, bumetanide increases the excretion of water and electrolytes, which helps reduce fluid accumulation in conditions like ascites.
Choice C rationale
Decreased serum glucose is not associated with bumetanide. Bumetanide primarily affects fluid and electrolyte balance and does not have a significant impact on blood glucose levels.
Choice D rationale
Increased blood pressure is not an expected effect of bumetanide. On the contrary, bumetanide can help lower blood pressure by reducing fluid volume and decreasing the workload on the heart.
Free Nursing Test Bank
- Free Pharmacology Quiz 1
- Free Medical-Surgical Quiz 2
- Free Fundamentals Quiz 3
- Free Maternal-Newborn Quiz 4
- Free Anatomy and Physiology Quiz 5
- Free Obstetrics and Pediatrics Quiz 6
- Free Fluid and Electrolytes Quiz 7
- Free Community Health Quiz 8
- Free Promoting Health across the Lifespan Quiz 9
- Free Multidimensional Care Quiz 10
View Related questions
Correct Answer is ["A","F"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Thrombocytopenia, a low platelet count, increases the risk of bleeding and hemorrhage when receiving heparin.
Choice B rationale
Neutropenia, a low white blood cell count, does not directly increase the risk of hemorrhage. It is more related to infection risk.
Choice C rationale
Hypokalemia, low potassium levels, does not directly indicate a risk for hemorrhage. It can cause other complications but not specifically bleeding.
Choice D rationale
Fever is not a direct indicator of hemorrhage risk. It may indicate infection or other inflammatory processes.
Choice E rationale
Hyperglycemia, high blood sugar levels, does not indicate a risk for hemorrhage. It is more related to diabetes management.
Choice F rationale
Dark stools can indicate gastrointestinal bleeding, which is a sign of hemorrhage.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Metoclopramide is not used to suppress cough. It is primarily used to treat nausea, vomiting, and gastroparesis.
Choice B rationale
Metoclopramide does not have a primary effect on muscle relaxation. Its main action is to increase gastrointestinal motility.
Choice C rationale
Reduced nausea is a primary outcome for evaluating the effectiveness of metoclopramide. It is commonly prescribed to manage nausea and vomiting.
Choice D rationale
Metoclopramide is not typically used to decrease pain. Its primary indications are related to gastrointestinal symptoms.