A nurse in a prenatal clinic is caring for a client who asks what her estimated date of delivery will be if her last menstrual period began on November 15th.Which of the following is the appropriate response by the nurse?
July 12.
August 12.
August 22.
July 22.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale
Calculating the estimated date of delivery (EDD) involves adding 280 days (40 weeks) to the first day of the last menstrual period (LMP). Starting from November 15th, adding 280 days results in an EDD around August 22nd, not July 12th.
Choice B rationale
Using the same calculation method, adding 280 days to November 15th results in an EDD around August 22nd, not August 12th.
Choice C rationale
This choice is close but not accurate. Adding 280 days to November 15th results in an EDD around August 22nd.
Choice D rationale
This is the correct calculation. Adding 280 days to November 15th results in an EDD around August 22nd.
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Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A blood transfusion just after delivery is not a standard intervention for a client with Rh-negative blood type. The primary concern for Rh-negative clients is the potential for Rh incompatibility with the fetus, which can lead to hemolytic disease of the newborn. This condition is prevented by administering RhO(D) immune globulin during pregnancy.
Choice B rationale
Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) testing is used to screen for certain fetal abnormalities, such as neural tube defects, but it is not specifically related to Rh incompatibility. The primary intervention for Rh-negative clients is the administration of RhO(D) immune globulin to prevent sensitization.
Choice C rationale
RhO(D) immune globulin is administered at around 28 weeks of gestation to prevent Rh sensitization in Rh-negative clients. This intervention is crucial for preventing the development of antibodies that could harm the fetus in current or future pregnancies.
Choice D rationale
A three-hour glucose tolerance test is used to screen for gestational diabetes, which is a separate concern from Rh incompatibility. The primary intervention for Rh-negative clients is the administration of RhO(D) immune globulin.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) is produced by the pituitary gland and stimulates the adrenal glands to release cortisol. It is not involved in the maturation of ovarian follicles.
Choice B rationale
Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) is produced by the pituitary gland and stimulates the growth and maturation of ovarian follicles. It is the correct hormone involved in the follicular phase of the ovarian cycle.
Choice C rationale
Oxytocin is a hormone involved in childbirth and lactation. It stimulates uterine contractions and milk ejection but is not involved in the maturation of ovarian follicles.
Choice D rationale
Luteinizing hormone (LH) is produced by the pituitary gland and triggers ovulation and the formation of the corpus luteum. It is not involved in the maturation of ovarian follicles during the follicular phase.
Choice E rationale
Prolactin is a hormone that stimulates milk production in the mammary glands. It is not involved in the maturation of ovarian follicles.
Choice F rationale
Progesterone is a hormone produced by the corpus luteum and the placenta during pregnancy. It prepares the endometrium for implantation and maintains pregnancy but is not involved in the maturation of ovarian follicles.