A nurse at an ophthalmology clinic is providing teaching to a client who has open-angle glaucoma and a new treatment regimen of timolol and pilocarpine eye drops. Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide?
Administer the medications 5 minutes apart.
Hold pressure on the conjunctival sac for 2 minutes following application of drops.
It is not necessary to remove contact lenses before administering medications.
Administer the medications by touching the tip of the dropper to the sclera of the eye.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A: Administer the Medications 5 Minutes Apart
Administering the medications 5 minutes apart is crucial when using multiple eye drops. This practice ensures that each medication has enough time to be absorbed without being washed out by the subsequent drop. This is particularly important for medications like timolol and pilocarpine, which are used to manage intraocular pressure in glaucoma.
Choice B: Hold Pressure on the Conjunctival Sac for 2 Minutes Following Application of Drops
Holding pressure on the conjunctival sac (punctal occlusion) for 2 minutes after applying eye drops can help reduce systemic absorption and increase the local effect of the medication. However, this instruction is not as critical as the timing between administering different eye drops.
Choice C: It Is Not Necessary to Remove Contact Lenses Before Administering Medications
This statement is incorrect. Contact lenses should be removed before administering eye drops to prevent contamination and ensure proper absorption of the medication. The lenses can be reinserted after a sufficient amount of time has passed, usually around 15 minutes.
Choice D: Administer the Medications by Touching the Tip of the Dropper to the Sclera of the Eye
This statement is incorrect. The tip of the dropper should never touch the eye or any other surface to avoid contamination. The correct method is to hold the dropper above the eye and squeeze out the prescribed number of drops into the conjunctival sac.
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Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A: Plan of care changes for the upcoming shift
Plan of care changes for the upcoming shift are typically included in the “Recommendation” segment of SBAR. This section focuses on what actions need to be taken next, including any changes in the care plan that the oncoming nurse should be aware of. It ensures that the incoming nurse knows what to expect and what specific tasks or interventions are required during their shift.
Choice B: Intracranial pressure readings
Intracranial pressure (ICP) readings are crucial for monitoring a client with a traumatic brain injury. However, these readings are more appropriately included in the “Assessment” segment of SBAR. The assessment section provides an analysis of the client’s current condition, including vital signs, lab results, and other critical data. This information helps the oncoming nurse understand the client’s current status and any immediate concerns.
Choice C: Glasgow results
The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) results are used to assess the level of consciousness in clients with brain injuries. These results should also be included in the “Assessment” segment of SBAR. The GCS score provides valuable information about the client’s neurological status and helps guide clinical decisions. Including this information in the assessment ensures that the oncoming nurse has a clear understanding of the client’s current condition.
Choice D: Code status
Code status is a critical piece of information that should be included in the “Background” segment of SBAR. The background section provides relevant clinical history and context for the current situation. Knowing the client’s code status (e.g., full code, do not resuscitate) is essential for making informed decisions about their care, especially in emergency situations. Including this information in the background ensures that the oncoming nurse is aware of the client’s preferences and legal directives.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A: Decrease the Infusion Rate on the IV
Decreasing the infusion rate on the IV is the appropriate action to take when a client experiences flushing of the neck and tachycardia while receiving vancomycin. These symptoms are indicative of vancomycin flushing syndrome (VFS), also known as “red man syndrome,” which is a reaction caused by the rapid infusion of vancomycin. Slowing the infusion rate allows the body more time to metabolize the drug and can help alleviate the symptoms.
Choice B: Document that the Client Experienced an Anaphylactic Reaction to the Medication
Documenting that the client experienced an anaphylactic reaction is not accurate in this scenario. Vancomycin flushing syndrome is an anaphylactoid reaction, not an anaphylactic one. Anaphylactoid reactions are not mediated by IgE antibodies and do not require prior sensitization to the drug. Therefore, it is important to distinguish between the two and document the reaction correctly.
Choice C: Change the IV Infusion Site
Changing the IV infusion site is not necessary in this case. The symptoms of flushing and tachycardia are related to the rate of vancomycin infusion, not the site of infusion. Therefore, changing the site would not address the underlying issue.
Choice D: Apply Cold Compresses to the Neck Area
Applying cold compresses to the neck area may provide some symptomatic relief, but it does not address the root cause of the reaction. The primary intervention should be to slow the infusion rate to prevent further release of histamine and alleviate the symptoms.