A nurse at an ophthalmology clinic is providing teaching to a client who has open-angle glaucoma and a new treatment regimen of timolol and pilocarpine eye drops. Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide?
Administer the medications 5 minutes apart.
Hold pressure on the conjunctival sac for 2 minutes following application of drops.
It is not necessary to remove contact lenses before administering medications.
Administer the medications by touching the tip of the dropper to the sclera of the eye.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A: Administer the Medications 5 Minutes Apart
Administering the medications 5 minutes apart is crucial when using multiple eye drops. This practice ensures that each medication has enough time to be absorbed without being washed out by the subsequent drop. This is particularly important for medications like timolol and pilocarpine, which are used to manage intraocular pressure in glaucoma.
Choice B: Hold Pressure on the Conjunctival Sac for 2 Minutes Following Application of Drops
Holding pressure on the conjunctival sac (punctal occlusion) for 2 minutes after applying eye drops can help reduce systemic absorption and increase the local effect of the medication. However, this instruction is not as critical as the timing between administering different eye drops.
Choice C: It Is Not Necessary to Remove Contact Lenses Before Administering Medications
This statement is incorrect. Contact lenses should be removed before administering eye drops to prevent contamination and ensure proper absorption of the medication. The lenses can be reinserted after a sufficient amount of time has passed, usually around 15 minutes.
Choice D: Administer the Medications by Touching the Tip of the Dropper to the Sclera of the Eye
This statement is incorrect. The tip of the dropper should never touch the eye or any other surface to avoid contamination. The correct method is to hold the dropper above the eye and squeeze out the prescribed number of drops into the conjunctival sac.
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Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A: Low-Grade Fever
Low-grade fever is a common early symptom of rheumatoid arthritis (RA). It is often associated with the body’s inflammatory response to the autoimmune activity occurring in the joints. While it can persist throughout the disease, it is not considered a late manifestation.
Choice B: Weight Loss
Weight loss can occur in RA due to chronic inflammation and its effects on metabolism and appetite. However, it is more commonly seen in the early to middle stages of the disease rather than as a late manifestation. Persistent inflammation can lead to muscle wasting and weight loss, but these are not specific to the advanced stages of RA.
Choice C: Anorexia
Anorexia, or loss of appetite, is another symptom that can be present in RA. It is often related to the chronic inflammation and pain associated with the disease, which can reduce a person’s desire to eat. Like weight loss, anorexia can occur at various stages of RA and is not specifically a late manifestation.
Choice D: Knuckle Deformity
Knuckle deformity is a late manifestation of rheumatoid arthritis. As RA progresses, the chronic inflammation can lead to joint damage and deformities, particularly in the hands and fingers. This includes changes such as ulnar deviation, swan neck deformities, and boutonnière deformities. These deformities result from the destruction of joint tissues and the formation of scar tissue, which can significantly impair hand function.

Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A: Tamoxifen
Tamoxifen is a medication primarily used to treat breast cancer. It works as a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM), which means it blocks estrogen receptors in breast tissue. Estrogen can promote the growth of breast cancer cells, so blocking its effects can help to slow or stop the growth of these cells. However, tamoxifen is not typically used for prostate cancer because prostate cancer is driven by androgens (male hormones) rather than estrogens.
Choice B: Leuprolide
Leuprolide is a medication commonly used in the treatment of prostate cancer. It is a type of hormone therapy known as a luteinizing hormone-releasing hormone (LHRH) agonist. Leuprolide works by reducing the production of testosterone, a hormone that can stimulate the growth of prostate cancer cells. By lowering testosterone levels, leuprolide helps to slow the progression of prostate cancer and can be used in various stages of the disease.
Choice C: Finasteride
Finasteride is a medication used to treat benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) and male pattern baldness. It works by inhibiting the enzyme 5-alpha-reductase, which converts testosterone to dihydrotestosterone (DHT). While finasteride can reduce the size of the prostate and improve urinary symptoms in BPH, it is not typically used as a primary treatment for prostate cancer. Its role in prostate cancer is more preventive, as it can lower the risk of developing the disease.
Choice D: Cyclophosphamide
Cyclophosphamide is a chemotherapy drug used to treat various types of cancer, including lymphomas, leukemias, and some solid tumors. It works by interfering with the DNA of cancer cells, preventing them from dividing and growing. While cyclophosphamide can be used in certain cancer treatments, it is not a standard treatment for prostate cancer. Prostate cancer is more commonly treated with hormone therapy, targeted therapy, or other specific chemotherapy agents.