A nurse advises a client with osteoporosis to have three servings of milk or dairy products daily. Which of the following levels of prevention is being used by the nurse?
Secondary prevention
Primary prevention
Proactive prevention
Tertiary prevention
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason:
Secondary prevention involves early detection and treatment of disease to halt its progression. Examples include screening tests and early interventions. Advising a client with osteoporosis to consume dairy products is not aimed at early detection but rather at preventing the onset of complications by ensuring adequate calcium intake.
Choice B reason:
Primary prevention aims to prevent the onset of disease or injury before it occurs. This includes measures such as vaccinations, lifestyle modifications, and dietary recommendations. Advising a client with osteoporosis to consume three servings of milk or dairy products daily is a primary prevention strategy. It helps to maintain bone density and prevent fractures by ensuring adequate calcium and vitamin D intake.
Choice C reason:
Proactive prevention is not a standard term used in public health or medical practice. The recognized levels of prevention are primary, secondary, and tertiary. Therefore, this option is not applicable in this context.
Choice D reason:
Tertiary prevention focuses on managing and mitigating the effects of an existing disease to prevent further complications and improve quality of life. This includes rehabilitation and ongoing treatment for chronic conditions. While advising a client with osteoporosis to consume dairy products can be part of managing the condition, it is primarily a preventive measure to avoid further bone loss and fractures, aligning more with primary prevention.
Free Nursing Test Bank
- Free Pharmacology Quiz 1
- Free Medical-Surgical Quiz 2
- Free Fundamentals Quiz 3
- Free Maternal-Newborn Quiz 4
- Free Anatomy and Physiology Quiz 5
- Free Obstetrics and Pediatrics Quiz 6
- Free Fluid and Electrolytes Quiz 7
- Free Community Health Quiz 8
- Free Promoting Health across the Lifespan Quiz 9
- Free Multidimensional Care Quiz 10
View Related questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason:
Restricting visitors to a few hours in the afternoon to promote client rest can help reduce fatigue, but it does not directly address the need to conserve energy throughout the day. While managing visitor times can be part of an overall strategy, it is not the most effective way to conserve energy for essential activities.
Choice B reason:
Scheduling all activities within a small block of time to allow the client a longer, uninterrupted rest period may lead to fatigue and decreased performance. Concentrating activities in a short time frame can be overwhelming and counterproductive, especially for clients with limited energy reserves.
Choice C reason:
Scheduling toilet breaks before and after any other planned activity is practical for managing personal needs but does not specifically address energy conservation. While it ensures that the client is comfortable, it does not optimize the timing of energy-intensive activities.
Choice D reason:
Scheduling energy-intensive activities at the time of day when the client has higher energy levels is the best approach to conserve energy without compromising physical or mental health. This strategy takes advantage of the client’s natural energy peaks, allowing them to perform activities more effectively and with less fatigue. It helps balance activity and rest, promoting overall well-being.
Correct Answer is ["A","B","C","E"]
Explanation
Choice A reason:
Identification of resources to meet anticipated needs is a critical component of disaster planning. Nurses play a key role in identifying the resources required for effective disaster response, including medical supplies, personnel, and equipment. This ensures that the hospital is prepared to meet the needs of patients during a disaster.
Choice B reason:
Participation in comprehensive annual drills is essential for disaster preparedness. Nurses are involved in these drills to practice and refine their response skills, ensuring they are ready to act effectively in a real disaster. Drills help identify gaps in the disaster plan and provide opportunities for improvement.
Choice C reason:
Internal and external communications are vital during a disaster. Nurses are involved in establishing and maintaining communication channels within the hospital and with external agencies. Effective communication ensures coordination and timely response, which are crucial for managing a disaster situation.
Choice D reason:
Performing duties outside the typical job description may occur during a disaster, but it is not a primary component of the disaster plan. The focus is on ensuring that all staff are prepared to perform their roles effectively. While flexibility is important, the disaster plan should primarily outline specific roles and responsibilities.
Choice E reason:
Development of a decontamination plan is an important aspect of disaster preparedness, especially in scenarios involving hazardous materials. Nurses contribute to creating and implementing decontamination protocols to protect patients and staff from exposure to harmful substances.