A nurse advises a client with osteoporosis to have three servings of milk or dairy products daily. Which of the following levels of prevention is being used by the nurse?
Secondary prevention
Primary prevention
Proactive prevention
Tertiary prevention
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason:
Secondary prevention involves early detection and treatment of disease to halt its progression. Examples include screening tests and early interventions. Advising a client with osteoporosis to consume dairy products is not aimed at early detection but rather at preventing the onset of complications by ensuring adequate calcium intake.
Choice B reason:
Primary prevention aims to prevent the onset of disease or injury before it occurs. This includes measures such as vaccinations, lifestyle modifications, and dietary recommendations. Advising a client with osteoporosis to consume three servings of milk or dairy products daily is a primary prevention strategy. It helps to maintain bone density and prevent fractures by ensuring adequate calcium and vitamin D intake.
Choice C reason:
Proactive prevention is not a standard term used in public health or medical practice. The recognized levels of prevention are primary, secondary, and tertiary. Therefore, this option is not applicable in this context.
Choice D reason:
Tertiary prevention focuses on managing and mitigating the effects of an existing disease to prevent further complications and improve quality of life. This includes rehabilitation and ongoing treatment for chronic conditions. While advising a client with osteoporosis to consume dairy products can be part of managing the condition, it is primarily a preventive measure to avoid further bone loss and fractures, aligning more with primary prevention.
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Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason:
Decreasing bright lights can help alleviate discomfort for the client, especially if they are experiencing photophobia, which is common in meningitis. However, this action does not address the immediate need to prevent the spread of infection. While it is a supportive measure, it is not the first priority in managing a client with suspected meningitis.
Choice B reason:
Implementing droplet precautions is the first priority when a client presents with symptoms suggestive of meningitis, such as a severe headache, stiff neck, and positive Kernig’s and Brudzinski’s signs. Meningitis can be caused by bacterial infections that are highly contagious and spread through respiratory droplets. Initiating droplet precautions helps prevent the transmission of the infection to other clients and healthcare workers, making it the most critical initial action.
Choice C reason:
Initiating IV access is important for administering medications and fluids, but it is not the first priority. Ensuring the safety of others by implementing droplet precautions takes precedence. Once precautions are in place, the nurse can proceed with establishing IV access to facilitate further treatment.
Choice D reason:
Administering antibiotics is crucial in the treatment of bacterial meningitis, but it should be done after droplet precautions are in place to prevent the spread of infection. Prompt antibiotic therapy is essential, but the initial step must focus on infection control measures to protect others from exposure.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice a reason:
A negative-pressure isolation room is designed to prevent the spread of airborne infectious diseases by ensuring that air flows into the room but not out of it. This type of room is typically used for patients with diseases such as tuberculosis, measles, or COVID-19, which are spread through airborne particles. Scabies, however, is spread through direct skin-to-skin contact or by sharing personal items like bedding or clothing. Therefore, a negative-pressure isolation room is not necessary for a patient with scabies, as the primary mode of transmission is not airborne.
Choice b reason:
A private room is the most appropriate setting for a client with scabies. Scabies is highly contagious and can spread through direct skin-to-skin contact or by sharing personal items. Placing the client in a private room helps to prevent the spread of the mites to other patients and staff. In a private room, the client can be isolated effectively, and healthcare workers can implement contact precautions, such as wearing gloves and gowns, to minimize the risk of transmission. This approach ensures that the client receives appropriate care while protecting others from potential exposure.
Choice c reason:
A semi-private room with a client who has pediculosis capitis (head lice) is not suitable for a client with scabies. Although both conditions involve infestations, they are caused by different parasites and have different modes of transmission. Pediculosis capitis is spread through direct contact with infested hair or personal items, while scabies is spread through prolonged skin-to-skin contact. Placing a client with scabies in a semi-private room with another infested patient increases the risk of cross-contamination and further spread of both conditions. Therefore, this option is not recommended.
Choice d reason:
A positive-pressure isolation room is designed to protect immunocompromised patients from airborne pathogens by ensuring that air flows out of the room but not into it. This type of room is used for patients who need to be protected from infections, such as those undergoing chemotherapy or with severe immune deficiencies. Since scabies is not an airborne disease and does not pose a risk to immunocompromised patients in this manner, a positive-pressure isolation room is not appropriate for a client with scabies. The primary concern with scabies is preventing direct contact transmission, which is best managed in a private room.