A nurse advises a client with osteoporosis to have three servings of milk or dairy products daily. Which of the following levels of prevention is being used by the nurse?
Secondary prevention
Primary prevention
Proactive prevention
Tertiary prevention
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason:
Secondary prevention involves early detection and treatment of disease to halt its progression. Examples include screening tests and early interventions. Advising a client with osteoporosis to consume dairy products is not aimed at early detection but rather at preventing the onset of complications by ensuring adequate calcium intake.
Choice B reason:
Primary prevention aims to prevent the onset of disease or injury before it occurs. This includes measures such as vaccinations, lifestyle modifications, and dietary recommendations. Advising a client with osteoporosis to consume three servings of milk or dairy products daily is a primary prevention strategy. It helps to maintain bone density and prevent fractures by ensuring adequate calcium and vitamin D intake.
Choice C reason:
Proactive prevention is not a standard term used in public health or medical practice. The recognized levels of prevention are primary, secondary, and tertiary. Therefore, this option is not applicable in this context.
Choice D reason:
Tertiary prevention focuses on managing and mitigating the effects of an existing disease to prevent further complications and improve quality of life. This includes rehabilitation and ongoing treatment for chronic conditions. While advising a client with osteoporosis to consume dairy products can be part of managing the condition, it is primarily a preventive measure to avoid further bone loss and fractures, aligning more with primary prevention.
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Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason:
“It’s not unusual to feel that way at first, but once you learn the routine, you’ll enjoy it.” While this response acknowledges the client’s feelings, it does not provide specific information about the benefits of cardiac rehabilitation. The client needs to understand how rehabilitation can help them recover and improve their quality of life.
Choice B reason:
“Diet and exercise are good for you and good for your heart.” This statement is true but too general. It does not address the client’s specific concerns about the purpose and benefits of cardiac rehabilitation. The client needs more detailed information about how the program can help them.
Choice C reason:
“Cardiac rehabilitation cannot undo the damage to your heart but it can help you get back to your previous level of activity safely.” This response directly addresses the client’s concerns and provides clear information about the benefits of cardiac rehabilitation. It explains that while the damage cannot be reversed, rehabilitation can help the client regain strength, improve cardiovascular health, and safely return to their daily activities.
Choice D reason:
“Your doctor is the expert here, and I’m sure they would only recommend what is best for you.” While this statement supports the doctor’s recommendation, it does not provide the client with specific information about the benefits of cardiac rehabilitation. The client needs to understand how the program can help them personally.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A: A negative-pressure isolation room
A negative-pressure isolation room is typically used for patients with airborne infections, such as tuberculosis or measles, to prevent the spread of infectious agents through the air. Scabies, however, is primarily transmitted through direct skin-to-skin contact and occasionally through contact with contaminated clothing or bedding. Therefore, a negative-pressure isolation room is not necessary for a scabies patient1.
Choice B: A private room
A private room is the most appropriate choice for a client with scabies. This type of room helps prevent the spread of the infestation to other patients and allows for better control of the environment. Scabies is highly contagious and can spread through direct contact with the infested person or indirectly through contaminated items. Isolating the patient in a private room minimizes the risk of transmission and allows for proper infection control measures to be implemented2.
Choice C: A semi-private room with a client who has pediculosis capitis
Placing a scabies patient in a semi-private room with another patient, even one with a different parasitic infection like pediculosis capitis (head lice), is not advisable. Both conditions are highly contagious, and cohabitation increases the risk of cross-contamination and further spread of both infestations. Each condition requires specific treatment and isolation protocols to effectively manage and prevent outbreaks3.
Choice D: A positive-pressure isolation room
A positive-pressure isolation room is designed to protect immunocompromised patients from external contaminants by ensuring that air flows out of the room rather than in. This type of room is not suitable for a scabies patient, as it does not address the primary mode of transmission for scabies, which is direct contact. The focus for scabies management should be on preventing direct and indirect contact with others4.