A family of a client who has a medical history of stroke, hyperlipidemia, and peptic ulcer disease arrives at the memory care clinic with concerns about their loved one. The family states that the client has experienced worsening memory loss and forgetfulness over the last 6 months. The nurse is concerned the client is experiencing vascular dementia, due to which of the following factors?
The client's history of hyperlipidemia, because hyperlipidemia can lead to dementia due to blocked neuron communication throughout the body.
The client's history of peptic ulcer disease, because peptic ulcer disease can lead to dementia due to the loss of nerve cells in the stomach.
The client's history of peptic ulcer disease, because peptic ulcer disease can lead to dementia by destroying neuron communication in the stomach.
The client's history of stroke, because stroke can lead to dementia due to changes in the blood vessels of the brain.
The Correct Answer is D
A. While hyperlipidemia can contribute to vascular damage, it primarily increases the risk of cardiovascular disease and stroke, rather than directly blocking neuron communication to cause dementia.
B. Peptic ulcer disease is not associated with dementia, and the loss of nerve cells in the stomach does not lead to cognitive decline.
C. Peptic ulcer disease does not cause dementia by impacting neuron communication in the stomach.
D. Vascular dementia is often caused by stroke due to reduced blood flow or damage to the blood vessels in the brain, leading to cognitive decline and memory loss.
Free Nursing Test Bank
- Free Pharmacology Quiz 1
- Free Medical-Surgical Quiz 2
- Free Fundamentals Quiz 3
- Free Maternal-Newborn Quiz 4
- Free Anatomy and Physiology Quiz 5
- Free Obstetrics and Pediatrics Quiz 6
- Free Fluid and Electrolytes Quiz 7
- Free Community Health Quiz 8
- Free Promoting Health across the Lifespan Quiz 9
- Free Multidimensional Care Quiz 10
View Related questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Primary progressive multiple sclerosis is characterized by a gradual progression of symptoms without relapses, so this does not match the client's pattern.
B. Relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis is defined by episodes of exacerbation (active symptoms) followed by periods of remission (no symptoms), which aligns with the client's description.
C. Secondary progressive multiple sclerosis follows an initial relapsing-remitting course but leads to a more continuous decline in function, so it does not match the pattern described.
D. Clinically isolating syndrome refers to a single episode of neurological symptoms but does not indicate the pattern of relapses and remissions typical of relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. The right groin area is not the site of the procedure, so placing a sandbag here would not help control bleeding or pressure.
B. The sandbag should be placed over the left groin area where the femoral artery was accessed during the angiography. This helps apply pressure to prevent bleeding from the site and promote clot formation.
C. The right ankle is irrelevant to the procedure and would not require pressure.
D. Similarly, the left ankle has no relation to the femoral angiography site.