Try our free nursing testbanks today. click here to join
Teas 7 test, Hesi A2 and Nursing prep
Nursingprepexams LEARN. PREPARE. EXCEL!
  • Home
  • Nursing
  • TEAS
  • HESI
  • Blog
Start Studying Now

Take full exam for free

A clinic nurse is caring for a 4-year-old client with acute diarrhea and mild dehydration who is afebrile, active, and alert. The nurse is providing instructions to the parent. Which statement by the parent indicates understanding?

A.

"We can anticipate needing intravenous fluids to correct the dehydration."

B.

"I will continue to give oral rehydration in small amounts."

C.

"Chicken broth will replace the needed electrolytes lost."

D.

"If my child's soft spot becomes depressed, I will notify the healthcare provider immediately."

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Rationale:

 

A. Intravenous fluids are generally not required if the child is alert and active with mild dehydration; oral rehydration is usually sufficient.

 

B. Oral rehydration solutions are appropriate for treating mild dehydration and should be given in small amounts frequently.

 

C. Chicken broth is not ideal for replacing electrolytes because it is low in electrolytes and high in sodium. Oral rehydration solutions are preferred.

 

D. A depressed soft spot (fontanel) is a sign of severe dehydration in infants. For a 4-year-old, signs of dehydration would include changes in urine output, thirst, or dry mucous membranes rather than a depressed fontanel.


Free Nursing Test Bank

  1. Free Pharmacology Quiz 1
  2. Free Medical-Surgical Quiz 2
  3. Free Fundamentals Quiz 3
  4. Free Maternal-Newborn Quiz 4
  5. Free Anatomy and Physiology Quiz 5
  6. Free Obstetrics and Pediatrics Quiz 6
  7. Free Fluid and Electrolytes Quiz 7
  8. Free Community Health Quiz 8
  9. Free Promoting Health across the Lifespan Quiz 9
  10. Free Multidimensional Care Quiz 10
Take full exam free

View Related questions

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Rationale:


A. Oral penicillin is not a primary treatment for nephrotic syndrome. Antibiotics may be used if there is an associated infection, but they are not central to the management of nephrotic syndrome itself.

B. Labetalol is a medication used for hypertension and would not be specifically indicated for nephrotic syndrome unless hypertension is present.

C. Aggressive intravenous fluid resuscitation is not typically used in nephrotic syndrome; instead, fluid management focuses on balancing fluid intake and output carefully.

D. Prednisone, a corticosteroid, is commonly used to reduce inflammation and proteinuria in nephrotic syndrome. It helps to manage the condition effectively by addressing the underlying inflammation.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Rationale:


A. Bradycardia, constipation, and hypotonia are common symptoms associated with congenital hypothyroidism due to the reduced metabolism that results from decreased thyroid hormone levels.

B. Elevated serum T3 and T4 would not be expected in congenital hypothyroidism; these levels are typically low.

C. Tachycardia, diarrhea, and tremors are more indicative of hyperthyroidism, not hypothyroidism.

D. In congenital hypothyroidism, the thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) is typically elevated as the body attempts to stimulate the thyroid gland to produce more hormones.

Quick Links

Nursing Teas Hesi Blog

Resources

Nursing Test banks Teas Prep Hesi Prep Nursingprepexams Blogs
© Nursingprepexams.com @ 2019 -2025, All Right Reserved.