A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus (DM) who normally takes an oral antidiabetic agent asks the nurse why insulin is necessary during this hospitalization for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) exacerbation and pneumonia. Review of the medication record indicates the client is taking methylprednisolone, clindamycin, and pioglitazone. How should the nurse respond?
"Antibiotics cause significant fluctuations in blood glucose, which are controlled with insulin."
"The infection and the steroid medications you are taking can increase your blood sugar."
"You may need to take insulin when you go home since your oral agent is no longer sufficient."
"The use of insulin is easier to control your blood sugars while you are hospitalized."
The Correct Answer is B
Rationale:
A. While antibiotics can influence blood glucose, the primary reason for insulin in this context is the effect of steroids and infection on blood glucose levels.
B. Methylprednisolone, a steroid, can increase blood glucose levels, necessitating the use of insulin to manage elevated glucose levels during illness.
C. The need for insulin is related to the current hospitalization and medication effects, not necessarily a long-term change in diabetes management.
D. The ease of control is less relevant compared to the fact that steroids and infection can significantly impact blood glucose levels, necessitating insulin during hospitalization.
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Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Acetaminophen, especially in high doses or with prolonged use, is known to cause hepatotoxicity, which can lead to jaundice. Notifying the healthcare provider is crucial to prevent further liver damage.
B. Captopril, an ACE inhibitor used for hypertension, is not commonly associated with jaundice or liver dysfunction.
C. Omeprazole, a proton pump inhibitor used for GERD, is less likely to cause liver damage compared to acetaminophen.
D. Prednisone, a corticosteroid, can have many side effects, but hepatotoxicity is not among the most common, making acetaminophen the most concerning drug in this context.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Rationale:
A.Allergic rhinitis is characterized by intranasal edema and swelling of the turbinates due to inflammation caused by allergens. This is a common physical finding in clients with allergic rhinitis.
B.Purulent secretions typically indicate an infection rather than an allergic condition.
C.Bilateral, pale gray nodules might suggest nasal polyps, which are associated with chronic sinusitis rather than acute allergic rhinitis.
D.Eye tearing is common in allergic rhinitis, but thick yellow nasal drainage suggests an infection rather than an allergic reaction.