A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus (DM) who normally takes an oral antidiabetic agent asks the nurse why insulin is necessary during this hospitalization for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) exacerbation and pneumonia. Review of the medication record indicates the client is taking methylprednisolone, clindamycin, and pioglitazone. How should the nurse respond?
"Antibiotics cause significant fluctuations in blood glucose, which are controlled with insulin."
"The infection and the steroid medications you are taking can increase your blood sugar."
"You may need to take insulin when you go home since your oral agent is no longer sufficient."
"The use of insulin is easier to control your blood sugars while you are hospitalized."
The Correct Answer is B
Rationale:
A. While antibiotics can influence blood glucose, the primary reason for insulin in this context is the effect of steroids and infection on blood glucose levels.
B. Methylprednisolone, a steroid, can increase blood glucose levels, necessitating the use of insulin to manage elevated glucose levels during illness.
C. The need for insulin is related to the current hospitalization and medication effects, not necessarily a long-term change in diabetes management.
D. The ease of control is less relevant compared to the fact that steroids and infection can significantly impact blood glucose levels, necessitating insulin during hospitalization.
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Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Spasms of the neck and back can be symptoms of acute dystonia, a side effect of antipsychotic medications like chlorpromazine. Anticholinergic drugs such as benztropine mesylate can help manage these symptoms.
B. Spasms are not an expected side effect of chlorpromazine and require intervention rather than acceptance.
C. Refusing to administer chlorpromazine without consulting the healthcare provider may be premature; the priority is to address the symptoms.
D. Decreasing the dose and notifying the healthcare provider may be necessary, but first, it’s essential to determine if anticholinergic medication is required to address the acute symptoms.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Urinary output is important but not as critical as identifying the potential source of infection.
B. A 24-hour medication history is useful but secondary to identifying an acute infection.
C. The amount of serous drainage provides information on wound healing but does not confirm infection.
D. Increased confusion in an older adult, especially with a wound present, raises concern for infection, possibly sepsis. A WBC count can help identify infection and guide further treatment.