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A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus (DM) who normally takes an oral antidiabetic agent asks the nurse why insulin is necessary during this hospitalization for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) exacerbation and pneumonia. Review of the medication record indicates the client is taking methylprednisolone, clindamycin, and pioglitazone. How should the nurse respond?

A.

"Antibiotics cause significant fluctuations in blood glucose, which are controlled with insulin."

B.

"The infection and the steroid medications you are taking can increase your blood sugar."

C.

"You may need to take insulin when you go home since your oral agent is no longer sufficient."

D.

"The use of insulin is easier to control your blood sugars while you are hospitalized."

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Rationale:

 

A. While antibiotics can influence blood glucose, the primary reason for insulin in this context is the effect of steroids and infection on blood glucose levels.

 

B. Methylprednisolone, a steroid, can increase blood glucose levels, necessitating the use of insulin to manage elevated glucose levels during illness.

 

C. The need for insulin is related to the current hospitalization and medication effects, not necessarily a long-term change in diabetes management.

 

D. The ease of control is less relevant compared to the fact that steroids and infection can significantly impact blood glucose levels, necessitating insulin during hospitalization.


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View Related questions

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Rationale:

A. Elevating the head of the bed is important for swallowing and preventing aspiration but is secondary to ensuring correct patient identification.

B. Using at least two different methods to identify the client is the most important step to prevent medication errors. This ensures that the correct medication is given to the correct patient.

C. Providing water is helpful but not as critical as ensuring the correct patient is identified.

D. Rechecking the medications against the MAR is important but should be done in conjunction with proper patient identification.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Rationale:

A. Hypertension is not a common side effect of phenytoin. It is not typically associated with the medication.

B. Peripheral edema is not commonly linked to phenytoin use.

C. Gingival hyperplasia, or overgrowth of the gums, is a common side effect of phenytoin, particularly with long-term use.

D. Hematuria is not a typical side effect of phenytoin and may indicate a different medical issue.

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