A client with symptoms of influenza that started the previous day asks the clinic nurse about taking oseltamivir to treat the infection. Which response should the nurse provide?
Advise the client that once symptoms occur it is too late to receive an influenza vaccination.
Explain to the client that antibiotics are not useful in treating viral infections such as influenza.
Refer the client to the healthcare provider at the clinic to obtain a medication prescription.
Instruct the client that over-the-counter medications are sufficient to manage influenza symptoms.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale
Advising the client that it is too late to receive an influenza vaccination once symptoms occur is correct, but it does not address the client’s question about oseltamivir.
Choice B rationale
Explaining that antibiotics are not useful in treating viral infections is correct, but it does not address the client’s question about oseltamivir.
Choice C rationale
Referring the client to the healthcare provider to obtain a medication prescription is the most appropriate response. Oseltamivir is an antiviral medication that can be effective if started within 48 hours of symptom onset.
Choice D rationale
Instructing the client that over-the-counter medications are sufficient to manage influenza symptoms is not appropriate, as oseltamivir can help reduce the severity and duration of the illness if taken early.
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Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Isolating the client from others is the most important action to prevent the spread of COVID-19. This includes isolating the client from other clients, family, and healthcare workers not wearing proper PPE2.
Choice B rationale
Reporting the COVID-19 result to the local health department is important but not the immediate priority. Isolation takes precedence to prevent transmission.
Choice C rationale
Teaching the client to wear a mask, hand wash, and social distance is essential but secondary to immediate isolation.
Choice D rationale
Counseling family members to monitor for symptoms is important but not the immediate priority. Isolation of the client is the first step.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
For long-term control of normal eye pressure is the accurate response. Open-angle glaucoma is a chronic condition that requires ongoing treatment to maintain normal intraocular pressure and prevent further damage to the optic nerve. Eye drops are typically used for life to manage the condition.
Choice B rationale
Until a smaller angle can be restored is not accurate because open-angle glaucoma does not involve a change in the angle of the anterior chamber. The goal of treatment is to lower intraocular pressure, not to restore the angle.
Choice C rationale
For long-term control of pain and swelling is not accurate because open-angle glaucoma primarily involves increased intraocular pressure and optic nerve damage, not pain and swelling. The goal of treatment is to lower intraocular pressure.
Choice D rationale
Until the excess pressure is reduced is not accurate because open-angle glaucoma requires ongoing treatment to maintain normal intraocular pressure. Stopping treatment once pressure is reduced can lead to a recurrence of elevated pressure and further damage.