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A client with symptoms of influenza that started the previous day asks the clinic nurse about taking oseltamivir to treat the infection. Which response should the nurse provide?

A.

Advise the client that once symptoms occur it is too late to receive an influenza vaccination.

B.

Explain to the client that antibiotics are not useful in treating viral infections such as influenza.

C.

Refer the client to the healthcare provider at the clinic to obtain a medication prescription.

D.

Instruct the client that over-the-counter medications are sufficient to manage influenza symptoms.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Choice A rationale

 

Advising the client that it is too late to receive an influenza vaccination once symptoms occur is correct, but it does not address the client’s question about oseltamivir.

 

Choice B rationale

 

Explaining that antibiotics are not useful in treating viral infections is correct, but it does not address the client’s question about oseltamivir.

 

Choice C rationale

 

Referring the client to the healthcare provider to obtain a medication prescription is the most appropriate response. Oseltamivir is an antiviral medication that can be effective if started within 48 hours of symptom onset.

 

Choice D rationale

 

Instructing the client that over-the-counter medications are sufficient to manage influenza symptoms is not appropriate, as oseltamivir can help reduce the severity and duration of the illness if taken early.


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View Related questions

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A rationale

For long-term control of normal eye pressure is the accurate response. Open-angle glaucoma is a chronic condition that requires ongoing treatment to maintain normal intraocular pressure and prevent further damage to the optic nerve. Eye drops are typically used for life to manage the condition.

Choice B rationale

Until a smaller angle can be restored is not accurate because open-angle glaucoma does not involve a change in the angle of the anterior chamber. The goal of treatment is to lower intraocular pressure, not to restore the angle.

Choice C rationale

For long-term control of pain and swelling is not accurate because open-angle glaucoma primarily involves increased intraocular pressure and optic nerve damage, not pain and swelling. The goal of treatment is to lower intraocular pressure.

Choice D rationale

Until the excess pressure is reduced is not accurate because open-angle glaucoma requires ongoing treatment to maintain normal intraocular pressure. Stopping treatment once pressure is reduced can lead to a recurrence of elevated pressure and further damage.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Lactulose is a synthetic sugar used to treat hepatic encephalopathy by reducing the absorption of ammonia in the intestines. Ammonia is a neurotoxin that can impair mental status in patients with liver dysfunction. By decreasing ammonia levels, lactulose helps improve cognitive function and mental status in patients with hepatic encephalopathy.

Choice B rationale

While lactulose can cause diarrhea as a side effect, the therapeutic goal in hepatic encephalopathy is not to reduce the number of liquid stools but to lower ammonia levels in the blood. The reduction in ammonia levels leads to improved mental status, not necessarily a reduction in liquid stools.

Choice C rationale

The ability to ambulate independently is not a direct therapeutic response to lactulose. The primary goal of lactulose therapy in hepatic encephalopathy is to improve mental status by reducing ammonia levels, not to enhance physical mobility.

Choice D rationale

Lactulose does not have a direct effect on urine output. Its primary mechanism of action is to reduce ammonia absorption in the intestines, thereby improving mental status in patients with hepatic encephalopathy.

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