A client with pre-eclampsia with severe features at 38 weeks' gestation is being induced with IV oxytocin.
Which of the following would warrant the nurse to stop the infusion?
Blood pressure 160/110.
Frequency of contractions every 3 minutes.
Fetal heart rate 155 bpm with early decelerations.
Frequency of contractions every 3 minutes.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale
Blood pressure of 160/110 indicates severe preeclampsia and warrants immediate intervention to prevent complications. Stopping oxytocin is part of the management of severe
preeclampsia to avoid exacerbating the condition.
Choice B rationale
Frequency of contractions every 3 minutes is within the normal range during labor induction and does not warrant stopping the infusion unless there are other concerns.
Choice C rationale
A fetal heart rate of 155 bpm with early decelerations may require close monitoring but does not necessarily warrant stopping the oxytocin infusion. Early decelerations are typically a
normal physiological response.
Choice D rationale
Frequency of contractions every 3 minutes is expected during active labor and is generally not a cause to stop the oxytocin infusion. The nurse should continue to monitor the labor
progression closely.
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View Related questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Administering oxytocin during shoulder dystocia can exacerbate the problem by increasing uterine contractions, making it harder to deliver the baby's shoulder.
Choice B rationale
Flexing the client's thighs sharply toward her abdomen, known as the McRoberts maneuver, helps to widen the pelvis and can often resolve shoulder dystocia by changing the angle of the pelvic bones.
Choice C rationale
While applying oxygen is a standard practice to improve maternal and fetal oxygenation, it does not specifically address shoulder dystocia and is not a primary intervention.
Choice D rationale
Applying downward pressure on the fundus is contraindicated as it can worsen shoulder dystocia by further impacting the shoulder against the pelvic bone.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Decreased pain level can be an effect of addressing the cause of pain, but it doesn't indicate improved uterine tone or resolution of atony.
Choice B rationale
Stable blood pressure is important, but it is not the direct outcome of improved uterine tone or the resolution of uterine atony.
Choice C rationale
A firm fundus at or below the umbilicus indicates successful contraction of the uterus, resolving uterine atony and reducing bleeding.
Choice D rationale
Reduced lochial flow can indicate decreased bleeding, but it does not directly indicate improved uterine tone or resolution of uterine atony.