A client with pre-eclampsia with severe features at 38 weeks' gestation is being induced with IV oxytocin.
Which of the following would warrant the nurse to stop the infusion?
Blood pressure 160/110.
Frequency of contractions every 3 minutes.
Fetal heart rate 155 bpm with early decelerations.
Frequency of contractions every 3 minutes.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale
Blood pressure of 160/110 indicates severe preeclampsia and warrants immediate intervention to prevent complications. Stopping oxytocin is part of the management of severe
preeclampsia to avoid exacerbating the condition.
Choice B rationale
Frequency of contractions every 3 minutes is within the normal range during labor induction and does not warrant stopping the infusion unless there are other concerns.
Choice C rationale
A fetal heart rate of 155 bpm with early decelerations may require close monitoring but does not necessarily warrant stopping the oxytocin infusion. Early decelerations are typically a
normal physiological response.
Choice D rationale
Frequency of contractions every 3 minutes is expected during active labor and is generally not a cause to stop the oxytocin infusion. The nurse should continue to monitor the labor
progression closely.
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Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
History of preterm birth is the principal risk factor for predicting preterm birth. Previous preterm births significantly increase the likelihood of subsequent preterm deliveries due to
underlying etiological factors.
Choice B rationale
Low prepregnancy weight is a risk factor but not as significant as a history of preterm birth. It can contribute to complications in pregnancy but does not have the same predictive value.
Choice C rationale
Smoking during pregnancy increases the risk of preterm birth but is not the principal risk factor. It is a modifiable behavior that contributes to poor pregnancy outcomes.
Choice D rationale
Obesity can impact pregnancy outcomes but is not the principal risk factor for preterm birth. It is associated with other complications rather than directly predicting preterm delivery.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Postpartum psychosis poses significant risks to both the mother and her infant. The mother may have impaired judgment, hallucinations, or delusions, making it unsafe for her to be
left alone with her baby.
Choice B rationale
Symptoms of postpartum psychosis can persist for several weeks to months without appropriate treatment. Immediate and ongoing intervention is crucial to manage the condition.
Choice C rationale
Clinical response to medications for postpartum psychosis can vary, but with proper treatment, many clients show significant improvement. It is not accurate to state that the
response is usually poor.
Choice D rationale
While monitoring vitals may be part of overall care, it is not the most critical teaching point. Ensuring the mother is never left alone with her infant is essential to prevent potential
harm.