A client with open-angle glaucoma asks the nurse how long the prescribed eye drops will need to be used. Which response made by the nurse is accurate?
For long-term control of normal eye pressure.
Until a smaller angle can be restored.
For long-term control of pain and swelling.
Until the excess pressure is reduced.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale
For long-term control of normal eye pressure is the accurate response. Open-angle glaucoma is a chronic condition that requires ongoing treatment to maintain normal intraocular pressure and prevent further damage to the optic nerve. Eye drops are typically used for life to manage the condition.
Choice B rationale
Until a smaller angle can be restored is not accurate because open-angle glaucoma does not involve a change in the angle of the anterior chamber. The goal of treatment is to lower intraocular pressure, not to restore the angle.
Choice C rationale
For long-term control of pain and swelling is not accurate because open-angle glaucoma primarily involves increased intraocular pressure and optic nerve damage, not pain and swelling. The goal of treatment is to lower intraocular pressure.
Choice D rationale
Until the excess pressure is reduced is not accurate because open-angle glaucoma requires ongoing treatment to maintain normal intraocular pressure. Stopping treatment once pressure is reduced can lead to a recurrence of elevated pressure and further damage.
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Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Isolating the client from others is the most important action to prevent the spread of COVID-19. This includes isolating the client from other clients, family, and healthcare workers not wearing proper PPE2.
Choice B rationale
Reporting the COVID-19 result to the local health department is important but not the immediate priority. Isolation takes precedence to prevent transmission.
Choice C rationale
Teaching the client to wear a mask, hand wash, and social distance is essential but secondary to immediate isolation.
Choice D rationale
Counseling family members to monitor for symptoms is important but not the immediate priority. Isolation of the client is the first step.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Irregular rapid heart rate (tachycardia) is a serious side effect of albuterol and warrants immediate intervention. Albuterol is a beta-2 agonist that can cause stimulation of beta-1 receptors in the heart, leading to tachycardia and potential arrhythmias.
Choice B rationale
Uncontrollable shaking (tremors) is a common side effect of albuterol due to its stimulation of beta-2 receptors in skeletal muscles. While uncomfortable, it is not typically life-threatening.
Choice C rationale
Increased anxiety can occur with albuterol use due to its stimulant effects on the central nervous system. However, it is not as immediately dangerous as tachycardia.
Choice D rationale
Throat irritation is a minor side effect of albuterol and does not require immediate intervention.