A client with open-angle glaucoma asks the nurse how long the prescribed eye drops will need to be used. Which response made by the nurse is accurate?
For long-term control of normal eye pressure.
Until a smaller angle can be restored.
For long-term control of pain and swelling.
Until the excess pressure is reduced.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale
For long-term control of normal eye pressure is the accurate response. Open-angle glaucoma is a chronic condition that requires ongoing treatment to maintain normal intraocular pressure and prevent further damage to the optic nerve. Eye drops are typically used for life to manage the condition.
Choice B rationale
Until a smaller angle can be restored is not accurate because open-angle glaucoma does not involve a change in the angle of the anterior chamber. The goal of treatment is to lower intraocular pressure, not to restore the angle.
Choice C rationale
For long-term control of pain and swelling is not accurate because open-angle glaucoma primarily involves increased intraocular pressure and optic nerve damage, not pain and swelling. The goal of treatment is to lower intraocular pressure.
Choice D rationale
Until the excess pressure is reduced is not accurate because open-angle glaucoma requires ongoing treatment to maintain normal intraocular pressure. Stopping treatment once pressure is reduced can lead to a recurrence of elevated pressure and further damage.
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Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Counting the apical and radial pulses simultaneously is important for assessing pulse deficits, but it is not the most critical assessment for a client receiving hydromorphone.
Choice B rationale
Measuring the client’s capillary glucose level is important for clients with diabetes, but it is not directly related to the administration of hydromorphone.
Choice C rationale
Observing for edema around the ankles is important for assessing fluid retention, but it is not the most critical assessment for a client receiving hydromorphone.
Choice D rationale
Auscultating the client’s bowel sounds is crucial because hydromorphone is a potent opioid analgesic that can slow peristalsis and frequently causes constipation. Monitoring bowel sounds helps prevent complications such as bowel obstruction. .
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Total protein levels are not directly related to the symptoms of pallor and fatigue. While important, they do not provide immediate insight into the client’s current condition.
Choice B rationale
Sodium levels are crucial for overall health but are not directly related to the symptoms of pallor and fatigue. Monitoring sodium is important for fluid balance but not for diagnosing anemia.
Choice C rationale
Glucose levels are essential for managing diabetes and other metabolic conditions but are not directly related to the symptoms of pallor and fatigue. Monitoring glucose is important for overall health but not for diagnosing anemia.
Choice D rationale
Hemoglobin levels are directly related to the symptoms of pallor and fatigue. Diclofenac, an NSAID, can cause gastrointestinal bleeding, leading to anemia. Therefore, reviewing hemoglobin levels is crucial in this scenario.