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A client with open-angle glaucoma asks the nurse how long the prescribed eye drops will need to be used. Which response made by the nurse is accurate?

A.

For long-term control of normal eye pressure.

B.

Until a smaller angle can be restored.

C.

For long-term control of pain and swelling.

D.

Until the excess pressure is reduced.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A rationale

 

For long-term control of normal eye pressure is the accurate response. Open-angle glaucoma is a chronic condition that requires ongoing treatment to maintain normal intraocular pressure and prevent further damage to the optic nerve. Eye drops are typically used for life to manage the condition.

 

Choice B rationale

 

Until a smaller angle can be restored is not accurate because open-angle glaucoma does not involve a change in the angle of the anterior chamber. The goal of treatment is to lower intraocular pressure, not to restore the angle.

 

Choice C rationale

 

For long-term control of pain and swelling is not accurate because open-angle glaucoma primarily involves increased intraocular pressure and optic nerve damage, not pain and swelling. The goal of treatment is to lower intraocular pressure.

 

Choice D rationale

 

Until the excess pressure is reduced is not accurate because open-angle glaucoma requires ongoing treatment to maintain normal intraocular pressure. Stopping treatment once pressure is reduced can lead to a recurrence of elevated pressure and further damage.


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View Related questions

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Lactulose is a synthetic sugar used to treat hepatic encephalopathy by reducing the absorption of ammonia in the intestines. Ammonia is a neurotoxin that can impair mental status in patients with liver dysfunction. By decreasing ammonia levels, lactulose helps improve cognitive function and mental status in patients with hepatic encephalopathy.

Choice B rationale

While lactulose can cause diarrhea as a side effect, the therapeutic goal in hepatic encephalopathy is not to reduce the number of liquid stools but to lower ammonia levels in the blood. The reduction in ammonia levels leads to improved mental status, not necessarily a reduction in liquid stools.

Choice C rationale

The ability to ambulate independently is not a direct therapeutic response to lactulose. The primary goal of lactulose therapy in hepatic encephalopathy is to improve mental status by reducing ammonia levels, not to enhance physical mobility.

Choice D rationale

Lactulose does not have a direct effect on urine output. Its primary mechanism of action is to reduce ammonia absorption in the intestines, thereby improving mental status in patients with hepatic encephalopathy.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Isoniazid is an antitubercular drug used to treat active tuberculosis. The effectiveness of this medication is evaluated by observing a decrease in symptoms such as cough and sputum production. This indicates that the infection is being controlled and the bacteria are being eradicated.

Choice B rationale

A positive sputum smear and culture would indicate the presence of active tuberculosis bacteria, suggesting that the treatment is not effective. Therefore, this is not an expected outcome of effective treatment.

Choice C rationale

Decreased appetite and weight loss are not indicators of the effectiveness of tuberculosis treatment. In fact, these symptoms could indicate a worsening of the condition or side effects of the medication.

Choice D rationale

Vertigo and tinnitus are not related to the effectiveness of tuberculosis treatment. These symptoms could be side effects of the medication but do not indicate the success of the treatment.

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