A client with open-angle glaucoma asks the nurse how long the prescribed eye drops will need to be used. Which response made by the nurse is accurate?
For long-term control of normal eye pressure.
Until a smaller angle can be restored.
For long-term control of pain and swelling.
Until the excess pressure is reduced.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale
For long-term control of normal eye pressure is the accurate response. Open-angle glaucoma is a chronic condition that requires ongoing treatment to maintain normal intraocular pressure and prevent further damage to the optic nerve. Eye drops are typically used for life to manage the condition.
Choice B rationale
Until a smaller angle can be restored is not accurate because open-angle glaucoma does not involve a change in the angle of the anterior chamber. The goal of treatment is to lower intraocular pressure, not to restore the angle.
Choice C rationale
For long-term control of pain and swelling is not accurate because open-angle glaucoma primarily involves increased intraocular pressure and optic nerve damage, not pain and swelling. The goal of treatment is to lower intraocular pressure.
Choice D rationale
Until the excess pressure is reduced is not accurate because open-angle glaucoma requires ongoing treatment to maintain normal intraocular pressure. Stopping treatment once pressure is reduced can lead to a recurrence of elevated pressure and further damage.
Free Nursing Test Bank
- Free Pharmacology Quiz 1
- Free Medical-Surgical Quiz 2
- Free Fundamentals Quiz 3
- Free Maternal-Newborn Quiz 4
- Free Anatomy and Physiology Quiz 5
- Free Obstetrics and Pediatrics Quiz 6
- Free Fluid and Electrolytes Quiz 7
- Free Community Health Quiz 8
- Free Promoting Health across the Lifespan Quiz 9
- Free Multidimensional Care Quiz 10
View Related questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A chest X-ray or computed tomography (CT) scan can show abnormalities in the lungs that are suggestive of tuberculosis (TB), but they cannot definitively diagnose TB. These imaging tests can reveal changes in the lungs, such as nodules, inflammation, or fluid buildup, which can be caused by TB or other conditions. Therefore, a chest X-ray or CT scan alone is not sufficient to diagnose TB.
Choice B rationale
A hemoccult test on sputum collected from hemoptysis is not a diagnostic test for TB. It is a test for blood in the stool, which can be a symptom of TB but is not specific to TB. Hemoptysis, or coughing up blood, can occur in various conditions, including bronchitis, pneumonia, lung cancer, and TB. The hemoccult test cannot differentiate between these causes, making it an unreliable test for diagnosing TB.
Choice C rationale
A positive purified protein derivative (PPD) skin test indicates exposure to TB but does not confirm active infection. The PPD skin test involves injecting a small amount of tuberculin, a protein derived from Mycobacterium tuberculosis, into the skin. If a person has been exposed to TB, their immune system will react to the tuberculin, causing a raised red bump to appear at the injection site. However, a positive PPD skin test does not necessarily mean that a person has active TB infection. It could also mean that they have been exposed to TB in the past but have successfully fought off the infection. Further testing, such as a sputum culture, is needed to confirm the diagnosis of TB.
Choice D rationale
A sputum culture positive for Mycobacterium tuberculosis is the definitive diagnostic test for TB. It involves collecting a sample of sputum, which is the mucus coughed up from the lungs, and culturing it in a laboratory to see if Mycobacterium tuberculosis, the bacteria that causes TB, grows. This test is highly specific for TB, meaning that a positive result is almost always indicative of TB infection. It is also sensitive, meaning that it can detect TB infection even when there are few bacteria present.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Irregular rapid heart rate (tachycardia) is a serious side effect of albuterol and warrants immediate intervention. Albuterol is a beta-2 agonist that can cause stimulation of beta-1 receptors in the heart, leading to tachycardia and potential arrhythmias.
Choice B rationale
Uncontrollable shaking (tremors) is a common side effect of albuterol due to its stimulation of beta-2 receptors in skeletal muscles. While uncomfortable, it is not typically life-threatening.
Choice C rationale
Increased anxiety can occur with albuterol use due to its stimulant effects on the central nervous system. However, it is not as immediately dangerous as tachycardia.
Choice D rationale
Throat irritation is a minor side effect of albuterol and does not require immediate intervention.