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A client with leukemia is receiving chemotherapy. The nurse observes the client is weak, pale, and febrile. After reviewing the client's most recent laboratory results which reveals a platelet count of 25,000/mm3 (25 x 10^9/L), which intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care?

A.

Monitor urine and stool for occult blood regularly.

B.

Ensure a large gauge catheter is used to obtain blood samples.

C.

Remove cold and frozen foods from dietary trays.

D.

Wrap bruised areas with elastic bandage dressings.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A. Monitoring for occult blood in urine and stool is crucial in clients with low platelet counts to detect any potential bleeding early, as they are at increased risk of bleeding due to thrombocytopenia.  

 

B. Using a large gauge catheter may be necessary for some procedures, but it is not the priority intervention regarding the client’s current state and platelet count.  

 

C. Removing cold and frozen foods from dietary trays does not directly address the critical concern of bleeding associated with low platelet levels.  

 

D. While protecting bruised areas is important, it is secondary to monitoring for active bleeding, which is more critical at this stage.


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View Related questions

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. Joint pain is a common symptom of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) and, while it may indicate an exacerbation of the disease, it is not the most critical finding to report.

B. A low-grade fever can signify an infection or increased disease activity but is generally not as urgent as changes in renal function or systemic involvement.

C. Muscle atrophy is a concern over time but does not pose an immediate threat to the client’s health compared to acute changes in kidney function.

D. Hematuria is significant in SLE as it can indicate renal involvement, such as lupus nephritis, which can lead to severe complications. This finding requires prompt reporting and assessment to prevent further renal damage and manage potential complications effectively.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Internal bleeding typically presents with signs of hypovolemia, such as decreased blood pressure and increased heart rate, rather than pitting edema and jugular venous distention.

B. Right-sided heart failure is characterized by fluid overload, leading to symptoms like pitting edema in the extremities and jugular venous distention, which align with the findings observed in this client.

C. Left ventricular dysfunction primarily results in pulmonary congestion and respiratory distress rather than peripheral edema and jugular venous distention.

D. Cardiac tamponade may present with jugular venous distention, but it usually also involves hypotension and muffled heart sounds, which are not described in this scenario.

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