A client with depression has been taking citalopram, an SSRI, for several months and has presented for a follow-up assessment. The client tells the nurse, "I've been reading a lot online about the benefits of St. John's wort for depression, so I've started taking it once per day." In addition to referring the client to the provider, what is the nurse's best response?
"There can be an unsafe reaction between your antidepressant and St. John's wort, which is why taking them both is discouraged."
"Herbal remedies often contain unknown doses of the desired ingredient, which can be dangerous."
"It's very important that you not take the St. John's wort at the same time of day as your antidepressant."
"It's very important that you comply with your prescribed treatment."
The Correct Answer is A
A. "There can be an unsafe reaction between your antidepressant and St. John's wort, which is why taking them both is discouraged." is correct; St. John's wort can reduce the effectiveness of SSRIs and may increase the risk of serotonin syndrome, making it vital for the nurse to address this safety concern.
B. "Herbal remedies often contain unknown doses of the desired ingredient, which can be dangerous." is a valid point, but it does not specifically address the interaction with the client’s current medication.
C. "It's very important that you not take the St. John's wort at the same time of day as your antidepressant." is misleading; the concern is not just about timing but about taking both together at all.
D. "It's very important that you comply with your prescribed treatment." while true, this response does not directly address the specific risks associated with combining St. John's wort and citalopram.
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View Related questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","E"]
Explanation
A. Improved sleep is an indication that fluoxetine is effectively alleviating depressive symptoms, as sleep disturbances are common in depression.
B. Decreased anxiety suggests that the medication is effective, as fluoxetine can help reduce both depressive and anxiety symptoms.
C. Reduced appetite is typically not a sign of effectiveness; it may indicate a side effect or worsening of depression rather than improvement.
D. Weight loss is also not a clear indicator of effectiveness; it may indicate adverse effects or worsening mental health symptoms rather than improvement in mood or behavior.
E. Interest in physical activity indicates improvement in mood and energy levels, which are positive signs of fluoxetine's effectiveness.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Rebound hypertension can occur if antihypertensive medications are abruptly stopped, but it is not a direct reason for switching from an ACE inhibitor to an angiotensin II receptor blocker.
B. A persistent cough is a well-known side effect of ACE inhibitors due to the accumulation of bradykinin. If the client experienced this side effect, it would likely prompt the healthcare provider to switch to an angiotensin II receptor blocker, which does not typically cause this issue.
C. A transient ischemic attack (TIA) would require urgent intervention but is not a reason for changing from an ACE inhibitor to an angiotensin II receptor blocker.
D. Non-adherence to ACE inhibitor treatment may lead to ineffective blood pressure control but would not directly justify a switch to a different class of medication.