A client with depression has been taking citalopram, an SSRI, for several months and has presented for a follow-up assessment. The client tells the nurse, "I've been reading a lot online about the benefits of St. John's wort for depression, so I've started taking it once per day." In addition to referring the client to the provider, what is the nurse's best response?
"There can be an unsafe reaction between your antidepressant and St. John's wort, which is why taking them both is discouraged."
"Herbal remedies often contain unknown doses of the desired ingredient, which can be dangerous."
"It's very important that you not take the St. John's wort at the same time of day as your antidepressant."
"It's very important that you comply with your prescribed treatment."
The Correct Answer is A
A. "There can be an unsafe reaction between your antidepressant and St. John's wort, which is why taking them both is discouraged." is correct; St. John's wort can reduce the effectiveness of SSRIs and may increase the risk of serotonin syndrome, making it vital for the nurse to address this safety concern.
B. "Herbal remedies often contain unknown doses of the desired ingredient, which can be dangerous." is a valid point, but it does not specifically address the interaction with the client’s current medication.
C. "It's very important that you not take the St. John's wort at the same time of day as your antidepressant." is misleading; the concern is not just about timing but about taking both together at all.
D. "It's very important that you comply with your prescribed treatment." while true, this response does not directly address the specific risks associated with combining St. John's wort and citalopram.
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Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Chest pain and pale skin are not typical adverse effects associated with diltiazem use.
B. Shortness of breath and wheezing may occur due to other conditions or medications but are not common adverse effects of diltiazem.
C. Calcium channel blockers like diltiazem can cause peripheral edema due to vasodilation and bradycardia as a result of their action on the heart rate. Monitoring for these effects is essential in patients taking diltiazem.
D. Tachycardia is not an expected adverse effect of diltiazem; in fact, it is used to manage conditions where tachycardia may be present. Anxiety is also not a direct adverse effect of this medication.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. An increased risk for CNS depression is not typically associated with opioid agonist-antagonists; instead, these medications may produce a ceiling effect on sedation compared to full agonists.
B. Respiratory depression is more commonly associated with full opioid agonists rather than agonist-antagonists. Agonist-antagonists can sometimes counteract respiratory depression caused by full agonists.
C. Opioid withdrawal symptoms can occur when a client who is dependent on full agonist opioids is given an agonist-antagonist, as these medications can displace the agonist from receptors, leading to withdrawal.
D. Hypotension is a possible side effect of opioids but is not a specific concern with the use of agonist-antagonists in the context of opioid therapy.