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A client with depression has been taking citalopram, an SSRI, for several months and has presented for a follow-up assessment. The client tells the nurse, "I've been reading a lot online about the benefits of St. John's wort for depression, so I've started taking it once per day." In addition to referring the client to the provider, what is the nurse's best response?

A.

"There can be an unsafe reaction between your antidepressant and St. John's wort, which is why taking them both is discouraged."

B.

"Herbal remedies often contain unknown doses of the desired ingredient, which can be dangerous."

C.

"It's very important that you not take the St. John's wort at the same time of day as your antidepressant."

D.

"It's very important that you comply with your prescribed treatment."

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A. "There can be an unsafe reaction between your antidepressant and St. John's wort, which is why taking them both is discouraged." is correct; St. John's wort can reduce the effectiveness of SSRIs and may increase the risk of serotonin syndrome, making it vital for the nurse to address this safety concern.  

 

B. "Herbal remedies often contain unknown doses of the desired ingredient, which can be dangerous." is a valid point, but it does not specifically address the interaction with the client’s current medication.  

 

C. "It's very important that you not take the St. John's wort at the same time of day as your antidepressant." is misleading; the concern is not just about timing but about taking both together at all.  

 

D. "It's very important that you comply with your prescribed treatment." while true, this response does not directly address the specific risks associated with combining St. John's wort and citalopram.  


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View Related questions

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Reye syndrome is correct because administering aspirin to children, especially during viral illnesses like the flu, can lead to this serious and potentially fatal condition characterized by acute encephalopathy and liver failure.

B. Excess antiplatelet action is incorrect; while aspirin does have antiplatelet effects, this is not the primary concern in a child with a viral illness.

C. Asthma is incorrect; while some individuals with asthma may have sensitivity to aspirin, it is not specifically related to the child's flulike illness.

D. Salicylate poisoning is incorrect; while high doses of aspirin can lead to toxicity, the immediate risk in the context of flu-like illness is Reye syndrome, which is a more specific concern.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine commonly used to manage alcohol withdrawal symptoms, including seizures. It acts quickly to reduce anxiety and seizure activity.

B. Phenytoin is primarily used for seizure control in conditions such as epilepsy but is not the first-line treatment for alcohol withdrawal seizures.

C. Ethosuximide is specifically used for absence seizures and is not effective for alcohol withdrawal.

D. Gabapentin is sometimes used for neuropathic pain but is not indicated for acute alcohol withdrawal or seizure management.

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