A client with an obstetrical history of G1 P0000 received dinoprostone for cervical ripening 8 hours ago.
The Bishop score at that time was 4. The Bishop score is now 10. Which of the following actions by the nurse is appropriate?
Report abnormal findings to the obstetrician.
Place client on her side.
Monitor for onset of labor.
Perform nitrazine analysis of amniotic fluid.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale
Reporting abnormal findings to the obstetrician is unnecessary because an increase in the Bishop score from 4 to 10 indicates successful cervical ripening and readiness for labor
induction.
Choice B rationale
Placing the client on her side is not directly related to the assessment of cervical ripening or the Bishop score. It may be considered for comfort during labor.
Choice C rationale
Monitoring for the onset of labor is appropriate since the increase in the Bishop score to 10 suggests that the cervix is favorable for labor. Continuous monitoring is essential to detect
the onset and progression of labor.
Choice D rationale
Performing nitrazine analysis of amniotic fluid is not relevant to the assessment of cervical ripening or the Bishop score. This test is typically used to confirm the presence of amniotic
fluid in cases of suspected rupture of membranes.
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Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Retained tissue can cause postpartum hemorrhage, but with a firm uterus and no other signs of retained placenta, this is less likely the cause here.
Choice B rationale
Trauma is the most likely cause of increased bleeding in this scenario. The prolonged oxytocin induction and macrosomic infant suggest a higher risk of lacerations or uterine atony
despite the firm uterus.
Choice C rationale
Thrombin disorders cause bleeding due to clotting issues. However, this patient shows signs of active bleeding and clotting, making this less likely.
Choice D rationale
Uterine atony, indicated by a soft, boggy uterus, is a common cause of postpartum hemorrhage, but in this case, the uterus is firm, so it's less likely to be the cause.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Prior amniotic fluid leakage is not a required criterion for amniotomy. The main concern is cervical readiness and fetal head position, not previous leakage.
Choice B rationale
The fetal head engaged in the maternal pelvis ensures proper pressure and position for safe amniotomy. Engagement reduces the risk of umbilical cord prolapse and injury.
Choice C rationale
Certification of the nurse for amniotomy is not a standard criterion. The procedure is performed by qualified professionals, but certification isn't a prerequisite for the procedure to be scheduled.
Choice D rationale
Ultrasound to check the umbilical cord's position isn't a standard pre-amniotomy criterion. While it can be useful, the primary concern is the fetal head engagement and cervical readiness.