A client with an obstetrical history of G1 P0000 received dinoprostone for cervical ripening 8 hours ago.
The Bishop score at that time was 4. The Bishop score is now 10. Which of the following actions by the nurse is appropriate?
Report abnormal findings to the obstetrician.
Place client on her side.
Monitor for onset of labor.
Perform nitrazine analysis of amniotic fluid.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale
Reporting abnormal findings to the obstetrician is unnecessary because an increase in the Bishop score from 4 to 10 indicates successful cervical ripening and readiness for labor
induction.
Choice B rationale
Placing the client on her side is not directly related to the assessment of cervical ripening or the Bishop score. It may be considered for comfort during labor.
Choice C rationale
Monitoring for the onset of labor is appropriate since the increase in the Bishop score to 10 suggests that the cervix is favorable for labor. Continuous monitoring is essential to detect
the onset and progression of labor.
Choice D rationale
Performing nitrazine analysis of amniotic fluid is not relevant to the assessment of cervical ripening or the Bishop score. This test is typically used to confirm the presence of amniotic
fluid in cases of suspected rupture of membranes.
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Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
While intravenous antibiotics are given during labor to prevent GBS transmission to the baby, it is not administered at home but in the hospital when labor begins.
Choice B rationale
GBS does not significantly increase the risk of intrauterine infection that requires daily temperature checks; it primarily poses a risk of neonatal infection during delivery.
Choice C rationale
GBS bacteria reside in the vagina and can be transmitted to the baby during delivery. Administering antibiotics during labor helps protect the baby from serious GBS-related illnesses.
Choice D rationale
GBS does not cause scarlet fever or the symptoms described; those are caused by different bacteria, namely Streptococcus pyogenes. .
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Vaginal hematomas are usually associated with severe pain due to the accumulation of blood in the tissues.
Choice B rationale
Bleeding might be visible, but hematomas often cause internal accumulation, not external bleeding.
Choice C rationale
Warmth is not typically associated with hematomas; instead, pain and swelling are more common.
Choice D rationale
Redness may occur, but pain is the most consistent symptom.