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A client with an obstetrical history of G1 P0000 received dinoprostone for cervical ripening 8 hours ago.
The Bishop score at that time was 4. The Bishop score is now 10. Which of the following actions by the nurse is appropriate?

A.

Report abnormal findings to the obstetrician.

B.

Place client on her side.

C.

Monitor for onset of labor.

D.

Perform nitrazine analysis of amniotic fluid.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Choice A rationale

Reporting abnormal findings to the obstetrician is unnecessary because an increase in the Bishop score from 4 to 10 indicates successful cervical ripening and readiness for labor

induction.

 

Choice B rationale

Placing the client on her side is not directly related to the assessment of cervical ripening or the Bishop score. It may be considered for comfort during labor.

 

Choice C rationale

Monitoring for the onset of labor is appropriate since the increase in the Bishop score to 10 suggests that the cervix is favorable for labor. Continuous monitoring is essential to detect

the onset and progression of labor.

 

Choice D rationale

Performing nitrazine analysis of amniotic fluid is not relevant to the assessment of cervical ripening or the Bishop score. This test is typically used to confirm the presence of amniotic

fluid in cases of suspected rupture of membranes.


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View Related questions

Correct Answer is ["A","B","C"]

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Massaging the fundus helps to stimulate uterine contractions, reducing bleeding and promoting firmness in the uterus. Ensuring IV access is critical for administering medications and

fluids quickly.

Choice B rationale

Methylergonovine (Methergine) is used to prevent and control postpartum hemorrhage by promoting uterine contractions. Oxytocin bolus also helps stimulate contractions, preventing

further blood loss.

Choice C rationale

Carboprost tromethamine (Hemabate) is another uterotonic agent used to control severe postpartum hemorrhage by causing uterine contractions. Its use depends on the patient's

response to other treatments.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Blood pressure of 160/110 indicates severe preeclampsia and warrants immediate intervention to prevent complications. Stopping oxytocin is part of the management of severe

preeclampsia to avoid exacerbating the condition.

Choice B rationale

Frequency of contractions every 3 minutes is within the normal range during labor induction and does not warrant stopping the infusion unless there are other concerns.

Choice C rationale

A fetal heart rate of 155 bpm with early decelerations may require close monitoring but does not necessarily warrant stopping the oxytocin infusion. Early decelerations are typically a

normal physiological response.

Choice D rationale

Frequency of contractions every 3 minutes is expected during active labor and is generally not a cause to stop the oxytocin infusion. The nurse should continue to monitor the labor

progression closely.

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