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A client with an obstetrical history of G1 P0000 received dinoprostone for cervical ripening 8 hours ago.
The Bishop score at that time was 4. The Bishop score is now 10. Which of the following actions by the nurse is appropriate?

A.

Report abnormal findings to the obstetrician.

B.

Place client on her side.

C.

Monitor for onset of labor.

D.

Perform nitrazine analysis of amniotic fluid.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Choice A rationale

Reporting abnormal findings to the obstetrician is unnecessary because an increase in the Bishop score from 4 to 10 indicates successful cervical ripening and readiness for labor

induction.

 

Choice B rationale

Placing the client on her side is not directly related to the assessment of cervical ripening or the Bishop score. It may be considered for comfort during labor.

 

Choice C rationale

Monitoring for the onset of labor is appropriate since the increase in the Bishop score to 10 suggests that the cervix is favorable for labor. Continuous monitoring is essential to detect

the onset and progression of labor.

 

Choice D rationale

Performing nitrazine analysis of amniotic fluid is not relevant to the assessment of cervical ripening or the Bishop score. This test is typically used to confirm the presence of amniotic

fluid in cases of suspected rupture of membranes.


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View Related questions

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Reflexes of 3+ indicate hyperreflexia, common in pre-eclampsia, but not necessarily critical. Monitoring is essential but not an emergency.

Choice B rationale

Urinary output of 30 mL/hr is within the acceptable range but requires monitoring for any changes. It's not a critical alert.

Choice C rationale

A respiratory rate of 16 rpm is normal and does not indicate immediate risk requiring physician notification.

Choice D rationale

Serum magnesium level of 10 mg/dL is significantly high, indicating potential toxicity. Immediate physician notification is critical to adjust magnesium sulfate administration.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Magnesium sulfate is primarily used for neuroprotection in preterm infants and to prevent seizures in severe preeclampsia, not as a first-line tocolytic for preterm labor.

Choice B rationale

Morphine sulfate is an opioid analgesic used for pain management, not for inhibiting preterm labor contractions.

Choice C rationale

Terbutaline is a beta-agonist used as a tocolytic to relax uterine muscles and delay preterm labor. It helps decrease the intensity and frequency of contractions, making it suitable for managing preterm labor.

Choice D rationale

Betamethasone is a corticosteroid used to accelerate fetal lung maturity in preterm labor, not for direct contraction inhibition.

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