A client with an obstetrical history of G1 P0000 received dinoprostone for cervical ripening 8 hours ago.
The Bishop score at that time was 4. The Bishop score is now 10. Which of the following actions by the nurse is appropriate?
Report abnormal findings to the obstetrician.
Place client on her side.
Monitor for onset of labor.
Perform nitrazine analysis of amniotic fluid.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale
Reporting abnormal findings to the obstetrician is unnecessary because an increase in the Bishop score from 4 to 10 indicates successful cervical ripening and readiness for labor
induction.
Choice B rationale
Placing the client on her side is not directly related to the assessment of cervical ripening or the Bishop score. It may be considered for comfort during labor.
Choice C rationale
Monitoring for the onset of labor is appropriate since the increase in the Bishop score to 10 suggests that the cervix is favorable for labor. Continuous monitoring is essential to detect
the onset and progression of labor.
Choice D rationale
Performing nitrazine analysis of amniotic fluid is not relevant to the assessment of cervical ripening or the Bishop score. This test is typically used to confirm the presence of amniotic
fluid in cases of suspected rupture of membranes.
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Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A 37-year-old patient with obesity and pregnancy-induced hypertension presents multiple risk factors. Advanced maternal age, obesity, and hypertension collectively increase the
likelihood of complications such as preeclampsia, gestational diabetes, and cesarean delivery, necessitating close monitoring and management.
Choice B rationale
A patient with preexisting hypertension and twins is indeed high-risk due to the combined strain on the cardiovascular system and potential for preterm labor or other complications
associated with multiple gestations. However, the presence of pregnancy-induced hypertension and obesity in the first patient poses a slightly higher cumulative risk.
Choice C rationale
A 16-year-old patient with newly diagnosed gestational diabetes is at increased risk, particularly because of age and the potential for poorly managed diabetes leading to
complications. However, this scenario presents fewer immediate cumulative risks compared to older age and existing hypertension.
Choice D rationale
A 28-year-old patient who had a premature birth three years prior must be monitored for signs of recurrent preterm labor. Yet, this history alone does not present as high a cumulative
risk as older maternal age, obesity, and pregnancy-induced hypertension. .
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Assessing for vaginal bleeding in PPROM is generally not necessary unless there is an indication of placental issues or other complications. PPROM involves the rupture of
membranes before 37 weeks, primarily requiring monitoring for infection and fetal wellbeing rather than routine bleeding checks.
Choice B rationale
Monitoring for signs of infection is critical after PPROM because the rupture increases the risk of ascending infections. The nurse should diligently assess for fever, foul-smelling
discharge, and other signs of infection to initiate timely interventions, preserving both maternal and fetal health.
Choice C rationale
Checking for cervical dilation in PPROM is important because premature rupture of membranes can lead to preterm labor. Monitoring dilation helps determine if labor is imminent,
influencing decisions regarding maternal and neonatal care to prevent complications from premature birth.
Choice D rationale
Watching for fetal compromise is necessary following PPROM as premature rupture of membranes can lead to umbilical cord compression or other complications affecting fetal oxygenation. Continuous fetal monitoring helps detect early signs of distress, allowing timely intervention to ensure fetal safety.