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A client with an obstetrical history of G1 P0000 received dinoprostone for cervical ripening 8 hours ago.
The Bishop score at that time was 4. The Bishop score is now 10. Which of the following actions by the nurse is appropriate?

A.

Report abnormal findings to the obstetrician.

B.

Place client on her side.

C.

Monitor for onset of labor.

D.

Perform nitrazine analysis of amniotic fluid.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Choice A rationale

Reporting abnormal findings to the obstetrician is unnecessary because an increase in the Bishop score from 4 to 10 indicates successful cervical ripening and readiness for labor

induction.

 

Choice B rationale

Placing the client on her side is not directly related to the assessment of cervical ripening or the Bishop score. It may be considered for comfort during labor.

 

Choice C rationale

Monitoring for the onset of labor is appropriate since the increase in the Bishop score to 10 suggests that the cervix is favorable for labor. Continuous monitoring is essential to detect

the onset and progression of labor.

 

Choice D rationale

Performing nitrazine analysis of amniotic fluid is not relevant to the assessment of cervical ripening or the Bishop score. This test is typically used to confirm the presence of amniotic

fluid in cases of suspected rupture of membranes.


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View Related questions

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Decreased muscle tone is not typically associated with NAS. NAS often presents with increased muscle tone due to withdrawal symptoms.

Choice B rationale

A continuous high-pitched cry is a hallmark sign of NAS, indicating withdrawal and discomfort. This is due to overstimulation of the central nervous system.

Choice C rationale

Newborns with NAS often have difficulty sleeping due to irritability and discomfort, sleeping for shorter periods.

Choice D rationale

Tremors in NAS are typically pronounced and continuous, not just when disturbed. These tremors result from withdrawal effects on the nervous system.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Precipitous labor and birth are not directly associated with postpartum endometritis. The primary risk factors are related to infections during labor.

Choice B rationale

Postpartum endometritis is typically treated with a combination of antibiotics for 7-10 days, not a single dose of ampicillin or cephalosporin. A single dose would be insufficient for

treating the infection.

Choice C rationale

Postpartum endometritis is more common following cesarean birth due to increased risk of infection despite the use of sterile techniques during surgery.

Choice D rationale

Postpartum endometritis is associated with internal monitoring, amnioinfusion, prolonged labor, and prolonged rupture of membranes. These factors increase the risk of infection,

which can lead to endometritis.

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