A client with a long-standing diagnosis of angina has been prescribed nitroglycerin and diltiazem. In addition to monitoring the client's heart rate, the nurse should prioritize what assessment?
Blood pressure
Level of consciousness
Daily weights
Respiratory status
The Correct Answer is A
A. Blood pressure is correct because both nitroglycerin and diltiazem can cause vasodilation, leading to hypotension; thus, monitoring blood pressure is crucial for patient safety.
B. Level of consciousness is incorrect; while important, it is not the primary concern in this context.
C. Daily weights are incorrect; they are more relevant for assessing fluid status over time, not immediate drug effects.
D. Respiratory status is incorrect; while monitoring is important, blood pressure takes precedence due to the risk of hypotension associated with these medications.
Free Nursing Test Bank
- Free Pharmacology Quiz 1
- Free Medical-Surgical Quiz 2
- Free Fundamentals Quiz 3
- Free Maternal-Newborn Quiz 4
- Free Anatomy and Physiology Quiz 5
- Free Obstetrics and Pediatrics Quiz 6
- Free Fluid and Electrolytes Quiz 7
- Free Community Health Quiz 8
- Free Promoting Health across the Lifespan Quiz 9
- Free Multidimensional Care Quiz 10
View Related questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. "There can be an unsafe reaction between your antidepressant and St. John's wort, which is why taking them both is discouraged." is correct; St. John's wort can reduce the effectiveness of SSRIs and may increase the risk of serotonin syndrome, making it vital for the nurse to address this safety concern.
B. "Herbal remedies often contain unknown doses of the desired ingredient, which can be dangerous." is a valid point, but it does not specifically address the interaction with the client’s current medication.
C. "It's very important that you not take the St. John's wort at the same time of day as your antidepressant." is misleading; the concern is not just about timing but about taking both together at all.
D. "It's very important that you comply with your prescribed treatment." while true, this response does not directly address the specific risks associated with combining St. John's wort and citalopram.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. A return to normal respiratory rate, rhythm, and depth is correct because opioid antagonists, such as naloxone, are primarily used to reverse the respiratory depression caused by opioid overdose.
B. Management of alcohol withdrawal symptoms is incorrect; opioid antagonists do not address alcohol withdrawal.
C. A reduction in the client's rating of their pain is incorrect; opioid antagonists counteract the effects of opioids, which can result in increased pain levels rather than reduction.
D. Alertness and improve memory function is incorrect; while opioid antagonists may improve alertness by reversing sedation, the primary goal focuses on restoring respiratory function.