Try our free nursing testbanks today. click here to join
Teas 7 test, Hesi A2 and Nursing prep
Nursingprepexams LEARN. PREPARE. EXCEL!
  • Home
  • Nursing
  • TEAS
  • HESI
  • Blog
Start Studying Now

Take full exam for free

A client with a long-standing diagnosis of angina has been prescribed nitroglycerin and diltiazem. In addition to monitoring the client's heart rate, the nurse should prioritize what assessment?

A.

Blood pressure

B.

Level of consciousness

C.

Daily weights

D.

Respiratory status

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A. Blood pressure is correct because both nitroglycerin and diltiazem can cause vasodilation, leading to hypotension; thus, monitoring blood pressure is crucial for patient safety.  

 

B. Level of consciousness is incorrect; while important, it is not the primary concern in this context.  

 

C. Daily weights are incorrect; they are more relevant for assessing fluid status over time, not immediate drug effects.  

 

D. Respiratory status is incorrect; while monitoring is important, blood pressure takes precedence due to the risk of hypotension associated with these medications.


Free Nursing Test Bank

  1. Free Pharmacology Quiz 1
  2. Free Medical-Surgical Quiz 2
  3. Free Fundamentals Quiz 3
  4. Free Maternal-Newborn Quiz 4
  5. Free Anatomy and Physiology Quiz 5
  6. Free Obstetrics and Pediatrics Quiz 6
  7. Free Fluid and Electrolytes Quiz 7
  8. Free Community Health Quiz 8
  9. Free Promoting Health across the Lifespan Quiz 9
  10. Free Multidimensional Care Quiz 10
Take full exam free

View Related questions

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Excessive thirst is not a common adverse effect associated with albuterol.

B. Albuterol, a beta-agonist, can cause tachycardia as an adverse effect; a heart rate of 99 beats/min may indicate this response.

C. An oral temperature of 100°F may suggest a mild infection or other issues, but it is not a specific adverse effect of albuterol.

D. Diarrhea is not typically associated with albuterol use and is less likely to be attributed to the medication.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Rebound hypertension can occur if antihypertensive medications are abruptly stopped, but it is not a direct reason for switching from an ACE inhibitor to an angiotensin II receptor blocker.

B. A persistent cough is a well-known side effect of ACE inhibitors due to the accumulation of bradykinin. If the client experienced this side effect, it would likely prompt the healthcare provider to switch to an angiotensin II receptor blocker, which does not typically cause this issue.

C. A transient ischemic attack (TIA) would require urgent intervention but is not a reason for changing from an ACE inhibitor to an angiotensin II receptor blocker.

D. Non-adherence to ACE inhibitor treatment may lead to ineffective blood pressure control but would not directly justify a switch to a different class of medication.

Quick Links

Nursing Teas Hesi Blog

Resources

Nursing Test banks Teas Prep Hesi Prep Nursingprepexams Blogs
© Nursingprepexams.com @ 2019 -2025, All Right Reserved.