A client who has just experienced a pulmonary embolism is administered alteplase (Activase). Which of the following side effects associated with this medication would the nurse assess for?
pancytopenia
Hypertension
Hypokalemia
Internal bleeding
The Correct Answer is D
A) Pancytopenia: While some medications can cause pancytopenia, it is not a common or direct side effect of alteplase. This condition involves a reduction in red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets, and is not typically associated with thrombolytics.
B) Hypertension: Alteplase is not known to cause hypertension. In fact, the goal of administering alteplase in the context of a pulmonary embolism is to dissolve the clot and restore normal blood flow, which may help stabilize blood pressure.
C) Hypokalemia: This condition, characterized by low potassium levels, is not a common side effect of alteplase. There are other medications that may cause electrolyte imbalances, but alteplase itself is not typically linked to hypokalemia.
D) Internal bleeding: This is a significant risk associated with alteplase, as it is a thrombolytic agent that dissolves clots. The nurse should closely monitor for signs of internal bleeding, such as changes in vital signs, unexplained bruising, or blood in urine or stool. This is the most critical side effect to assess for in a client receiving alteplase
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Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A) Heparin induced thrombocytopenia (HIT): Argatroban is an indirect thrombin inhibitor specifically used for anticoagulation in patients with HIT. This condition involves a significant drop in platelet counts due to heparin therapy, and argatroban is an appropriate alternative for preventing thrombosis in these patients.
B) Ventricular Dysfunction: While managing anticoagulation may be important in patients with ventricular dysfunction, this condition does not specifically necessitate the use of argatroban. Other anticoagulants may be used based on the clinical situation.
C) Myocardial infarction: Although anticoagulation may be warranted in the setting of a myocardial infarction, argatroban is not specifically indicated for this condition. Other antithrombotic therapies, such as aspirin or heparin, are more commonly used.
D) Hepatotoxicity: Argatroban is metabolized in the liver, so caution is warranted in patients with liver dysfunction. Hepatotoxicity itself would not be a reason to use argatroban; rather, it may require close monitoring or adjustment of dosage.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A) Migraine headache: While migraines can be uncomfortable and distressing, they are not a known serious side effect of atorvastatin. Clients may experience headaches, but this symptom does not typically require immediate reporting unless accompanied by other concerning signs.
B) Bradycardia: Bradycardia, or a slow heart rate, is not a common side effect of atorvastatin. While monitoring heart rate is important, bradycardia alone does not necessitate immediate reporting unless it leads to significant symptoms or complications.
C) Dark-red urine: Dark-red urine is a concerning finding that could indicate serious conditions, such as hematuria or rhabdomyolysis, particularly when associated with statin use. This symptom requires immediate reporting to the healthcare provider, as it may signify potential muscle breakdown or kidney issues, which are serious complications of atorvastatin therapy.
D) Elevated HDL cholesterol: Increased levels of HDL (high-density lipoprotein) cholesterol are generally considered beneficial and a positive outcome of treatment. Therefore, this finding would not necessitate immediate reporting to the healthcare provider.