A client who has just experienced a pulmonary embolism is administered alteplase (Activase). Which of the following side effects associated with this medication would the nurse assess for?
pancytopenia
Hypertension
Hypokalemia
Internal bleeding
The Correct Answer is D
A) Pancytopenia: While some medications can cause pancytopenia, it is not a common or direct side effect of alteplase. This condition involves a reduction in red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets, and is not typically associated with thrombolytics.
B) Hypertension: Alteplase is not known to cause hypertension. In fact, the goal of administering alteplase in the context of a pulmonary embolism is to dissolve the clot and restore normal blood flow, which may help stabilize blood pressure.
C) Hypokalemia: This condition, characterized by low potassium levels, is not a common side effect of alteplase. There are other medications that may cause electrolyte imbalances, but alteplase itself is not typically linked to hypokalemia.
D) Internal bleeding: This is a significant risk associated with alteplase, as it is a thrombolytic agent that dissolves clots. The nurse should closely monitor for signs of internal bleeding, such as changes in vital signs, unexplained bruising, or blood in urine or stool. This is the most critical side effect to assess for in a client receiving alteplase
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Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A) Pulse oximetry of 92%: While a pulse oximetry reading of 92% is slightly below normal, it is not a definitive reason to hold verapamil. This reading indicates mild hypoxemia, but it does not directly contraindicate the use of verapamil. Other factors should be considered before making a decision based solely on this value.
B) Pulse of 78: A pulse rate of 78 beats per minute is within the normal range for adults and does not warrant holding verapamil. This finding alone does not indicate any immediate concerns related to the administration of the medication.
C) Respiratory rate of 12: A respiratory rate of 12 breaths per minute is within the normal range for adults. This finding does not provide any indication that verapamil should be withheld. It is important to consider other clinical factors when assessing the appropriateness of medication administration.
D) History of myocardial infarction a week ago: Verapamil, a calcium channel blocker, can have significant effects on cardiac function. Administering it to a client who recently experienced a myocardial infarction (heart attack) could exacerbate cardiac issues and lead to complications. Therefore, it is crucial to hold the medication and consult with the healthcare provider before proceeding.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A) Beta Blockers: While beta blockers can be used to manage some side effects of various medications, they are not typically indicated for managing niacin-induced flushing. Their primary use is in cardiovascular conditions rather than specifically addressing flushing.
B) Calcium Channel Blockers: Calcium channel blockers are primarily used to treat hypertension and certain heart conditions. They do not specifically address the flushing associated with niacin and would not be the expected choice for this side effect.
C) NSAIDs: Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) can be effective in managing niacin-induced flushing. Administering an NSAID, such as ibuprofen, prior to taking niacin can help reduce the flushing response by inhibiting the prostaglandins that contribute to this side effect.
D) Fibric Acid Derivatives: These medications, such as gemfibrozil, are used to lower triglycerides and cholesterol levels, but they do not address the flushing side effect caused by niacin. Their mechanism of action is different and not focused on alleviating flushing symptoms.