A client suffering from depression presents to the healthcare setting for pharmacologic treatment. Which of the following medications would be considered the first-line treatment for depression?
risperidone (Risperdal)
haloperidol (Haldol)
paroxetine (Paxil)
clozapine (Clozaril)
The Correct Answer is C
A. Risperidone is an atypical antipsychotic primarily used to treat schizophrenia and bipolar disorder, not first-line treatment for depression.
B. Haloperidol is a typical antipsychotic used mainly for acute psychosis and agitation, not for treating depression.
C. Paroxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) that is widely recognized as a first-line treatment for depression due to its efficacy and relatively favorable side effect profile.
D. Clozapine is an atypical antipsychotic reserved for treatment-resistant schizophrenia and is not indicated for the treatment of depression.
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Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Oxytocin is primarily used to induce or augment labor in full-term clients, making this the correct statement regarding its expected outcome.
B. Oxytocin is not used to prevent contractions; it is used to stimulate them, especially during labor.
C. Oxytocin is not a contraceptive; it does not prevent pregnancy but is used in labor management.
D. Oxytocin does not influence egg production; it primarily affects uterine contractions and milk ejection in breastfeeding.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Flumazenil is a benzodiazepine antagonist and is not indicated for anticholinergic overdose.
B. Atropine is an anticholinergic medication used to treat bradycardia and other conditions, but it would not be appropriate for treating an anticholinergic overdose, as it can worsen the symptoms.
C. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist and would not be effective in treating scopolamine overdose.
D. Physostigmine is a reversible cholinesterase inhibitor that can counteract the effects of anticholinergic agents, making it the appropriate choice for reversing scopolamine toxicity.