A client presents to the emergency healthcare setting and diagnosed with a life-threatening ventricular dysrhythmia. Which of the following medications would the nurse begin to prepare?
Atenolol
Lisinopril
Adenosine
Procainamide
The Correct Answer is D
A) Atenolol: This is a beta-blocker that can be used for various cardiac conditions, including hypertension and certain arrhythmias, but it is not typically the first-line treatment for acute life-threatening ventricular dysrhythmias in the emergency setting.
B) Lisinopril: This medication is an ACE inhibitor primarily used to manage hypertension and heart failure. It does not address acute ventricular dysrhythmias and would not be appropriate for immediate use in this scenario.
C) Adenosine: While adenosine is effective for certain types of supraventricular tachycardia, it is not indicated for life-threatening ventricular dysrhythmias. It has a very short duration of action and is not the drug of choice in this context.
D) Procainamide: This antiarrhythmic medication is specifically used to treat life-threatening ventricular dysrhythmias. It works by stabilizing the cardiac membrane and is indicated in emergency situations to manage these types of arrhythmias. Therefore, preparing procainamide is the most appropriate action for the nurse in this scenario.
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Correct Answer is ["A","C","D"]
Explanation
A) Masking of hypoglycemia: Propranolol can mask the symptoms of hypoglycemia, such as tachycardia, which is important for clients with diabetes to be aware of. This means that while they may have low blood sugar, they might not experience the typical warning signs due to the medication's effects on the autonomic nervous system.
B) Tachycardia: Propranolol is a beta-blocker that is used to reduce heart rate and blood pressure. Therefore, tachycardia is not a side effect associated with this medication; in fact, it generally works to prevent this condition.
C) Bradycardia: Bradycardia, or a slow heart rate, is a common side effect of propranolol due to its action on beta-adrenergic receptors. Clients should be educated about monitoring their heart rate and reporting any significant drops.
D) Orthostatic Hypotension: This is a potential side effect of propranolol, especially when starting the medication or increasing the dose. Clients should be advised to rise slowly from sitting or lying positions to minimize the risk of dizziness or fainting.
E) Hypertension: Propranolol is prescribed to manage hypertension, so it should not be expected as a side effect. In fact, it is intended to lower blood pressure, and clients should be educated that they should not experience increased hypertension while taking this medication.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. "Depending on the level of your PT/INR, the clot will begin to dissolve.": This response is misleading, as heparin's effect is not primarily monitored by PT/INR; rather, heparin is monitored by activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT). Moreover, heparin does not directly dissolve clots; it prevents further clot formation.
B. "After the first dose, the clot will begin to dissolve.": This statement inaccurately suggests that heparin has an immediate effect on dissolving existing clots. While heparin acts quickly to inhibit further clotting, it does not lead to the dissolution of clots after the first dose.
C. "It usually takes heparin at least 2 to 3 days to reach a therapeutic blood level.": This is not accurate for heparin, which has an immediate effect on coagulation. While the therapeutic effects can be optimized over several days, heparin begins to work right away to prevent further clotting.
D. "Heparin does not dissolve clots. It stops new clots from forming.": This response accurately describes the mechanism of action of heparin. Heparin prevents the extension of existing clots and the formation of new clots, but it does not actively dissolve clots. This clarification is essential for the client’s understanding of their treatment and expectations regarding DVT management.