A client presents to the emergency healthcare setting and diagnosed with a life-threatening ventricular dysrhythmia. Which of the following medications would the nurse begin to prepare?
Atenolol
Lisinopril
Adenosine
Procainamide
The Correct Answer is D
A) Atenolol: This is a beta-blocker that can be used for various cardiac conditions, including hypertension and certain arrhythmias, but it is not typically the first-line treatment for acute life-threatening ventricular dysrhythmias in the emergency setting.
B) Lisinopril: This medication is an ACE inhibitor primarily used to manage hypertension and heart failure. It does not address acute ventricular dysrhythmias and would not be appropriate for immediate use in this scenario.
C) Adenosine: While adenosine is effective for certain types of supraventricular tachycardia, it is not indicated for life-threatening ventricular dysrhythmias. It has a very short duration of action and is not the drug of choice in this context.
D) Procainamide: This antiarrhythmic medication is specifically used to treat life-threatening ventricular dysrhythmias. It works by stabilizing the cardiac membrane and is indicated in emergency situations to manage these types of arrhythmias. Therefore, preparing procainamide is the most appropriate action for the nurse in this scenario.
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View Related questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A) Losartan (Cozaar): This medication is an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB) and is often used as an alternative for patients who experience a cough due to ACE inhibitors. Unlike ACE inhibitors, ARBs do not typically cause a cough because they do not affect bradykinin levels, making losartan an appropriate choice for managing hypertension without the adverse effect of a persistent cough.
B) Hydralazine HCL (Apresoline): While hydralazine is an antihypertensive, it works through a different mechanism (direct vasodilation) and is not a first-line alternative for patients with a history of ACE inhibitor-induced cough. It's generally used in specific situations, such as severe hypertension or heart failure.
C) Furosemide (Lasix): This is a loop diuretic primarily used for conditions like heart failure or edema, rather than for the management of hypertension alone. It does not address the underlying hypertension in the same manner as ACE inhibitors or ARBs.
D) Metoprolol (Lopressor): This is a beta-blocker that can be used for hypertension, but it does not directly address the issue of cough related to ACE inhibitors. Switching to a beta-blocker may not be the best option if the client is specifically seeking to avoid the cough associated with ACE inhibitors.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A) Pancytopenia: While some medications can cause pancytopenia, it is not a common or direct side effect of alteplase. This condition involves a reduction in red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets, and is not typically associated with thrombolytics.
B) Hypertension: Alteplase is not known to cause hypertension. In fact, the goal of administering alteplase in the context of a pulmonary embolism is to dissolve the clot and restore normal blood flow, which may help stabilize blood pressure.
C) Hypokalemia: This condition, characterized by low potassium levels, is not a common side effect of alteplase. There are other medications that may cause electrolyte imbalances, but alteplase itself is not typically linked to hypokalemia.
D) Internal bleeding: This is a significant risk associated with alteplase, as it is a thrombolytic agent that dissolves clots. The nurse should closely monitor for signs of internal bleeding, such as changes in vital signs, unexplained bruising, or blood in urine or stool. This is the most critical side effect to assess for in a client receiving alteplase