A client presents to the emergency department reporting chest pain that is radiating to the left arm, shortness of breath, and diaphoresis. Which medication should the nurse anticipate being prescribed by the healthcare provider?
Oxycodone.
Fentanyl.
Morphine.
Hydromorphone.
The Correct Answer is C
A. Oxycodone is an opioid analgesic used for moderate to severe pain management but is not typically the first-line medication in acute coronary syndrome scenarios.
B. Fentanyl is a potent opioid that may be used for severe pain; however, morphine is more commonly used in emergency situations for chest pain related to potential myocardial infarction.
C. Morphine is commonly used in emergency departments for the management of acute chest pain, particularly when associated with myocardial ischemia. It helps reduce pain and anxiety, lowers myocardial oxygen demand, and has vasodilatory effects that can alleviate the burden on the heart.
D. Hydromorphone is another opioid analgesic but is not usually the preferred choice for chest pain in the acute setting compared to morphine.
Free Nursing Test Bank
- Free Pharmacology Quiz 1
- Free Medical-Surgical Quiz 2
- Free Fundamentals Quiz 3
- Free Maternal-Newborn Quiz 4
- Free Anatomy and Physiology Quiz 5
- Free Obstetrics and Pediatrics Quiz 6
- Free Fluid and Electrolytes Quiz 7
- Free Community Health Quiz 8
- Free Promoting Health across the Lifespan Quiz 9
- Free Multidimensional Care Quiz 10
View Related questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. While elevated creatinine and BUN are important indicators of kidney function, in the diuretic phase, the focus shifts to monitoring for complications, particularly fluid and electrolyte balance.
B. Hypovolemia can occur due to excessive diuresis during the diuretic phase, which can lead to significant cardiovascular effects, including ECG changes related to electrolyte imbalances, particularly potassium levels.
C. Monitoring for uremic irritation is important but less critical than monitoring for hypovolemia and ECG changes that can lead to acute complications.
D. While monitoring for side effects of TPN is relevant, it is not the priority in the context of AKI transitioning phases where fluid and electrolyte balance are paramount.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. A headache that worsens upon sitting up is characteristic of a post-lumbar puncture headache, indicating a potential complication related to cerebrospinal fluid leakage.
B. Pain in the lower back after the procedure can be normal and does not necessarily indicate a complication.
C. Nausea and vomiting can occur but are not specific indicators of a complication following a lumbar puncture.
D. Sore throat when swallowing and talking is not typically associated with lumbar puncture complications and may relate to other causes such as anxiety or dehydration.