A client presents to the emergency department reporting chest pain that is radiating to the left arm, shortness of breath, and diaphoresis. Which medication should the nurse anticipate being prescribed by the healthcare provider?
Oxycodone.
Fentanyl.
Morphine.
Hydromorphone.
The Correct Answer is C
A. Oxycodone is an opioid analgesic used for moderate to severe pain management but is not typically the first-line medication in acute coronary syndrome scenarios.
B. Fentanyl is a potent opioid that may be used for severe pain; however, morphine is more commonly used in emergency situations for chest pain related to potential myocardial infarction.
C. Morphine is commonly used in emergency departments for the management of acute chest pain, particularly when associated with myocardial ischemia. It helps reduce pain and anxiety, lowers myocardial oxygen demand, and has vasodilatory effects that can alleviate the burden on the heart.
D. Hydromorphone is another opioid analgesic but is not usually the preferred choice for chest pain in the acute setting compared to morphine.
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Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Throbbing pain can be a common response after a fracture and cast application but does not necessarily indicate an emergency situation.
B. Circumferential edema could suggest complications, but it is not as immediately concerning as the vascular status of the limb.
C. An increased temperature in the lower extremity could indicate inflammation or infection, but it does not require immediate intervention compared to signs of impaired circulation.
D. A pale foot with sluggish capillary refill suggests compromised blood flow, which is a medical emergency requiring immediate assessment and intervention to prevent ischemia or compartment syndrome.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Administering opioid and non-opioid medications together is an effective pain management strategy for severe pain. This approach can provide better pain relief by targeting different pain pathways and may reduce the total dosage of opioids needed, thus minimizing side effects.
B. Alternating IV and IM analgesic medications is not the best approach; instead, consistent pain management is necessary to keep pain levels under control.
C. Waiting until the pain score reaches 10 before administering the maximum dosage is inappropriate and could lead to inadequate pain control. Pain management should be proactive, not reactive.
D. While educating the client on narcotic dependency is important, it is not the priority intervention in this acute situation where pain control is essential. The immediate focus should be on effective pain relief.