A client presents to the emergency department reporting chest pain that is radiating to the left arm, shortness of breath, and diaphoresis. Which medication should the nurse anticipate being prescribed by the healthcare provider?
Oxycodone.
Fentanyl.
Morphine.
Hydromorphone.
The Correct Answer is C
A. Oxycodone is an opioid analgesic used for moderate to severe pain management but is not typically the first-line medication in acute coronary syndrome scenarios.
B. Fentanyl is a potent opioid that may be used for severe pain; however, morphine is more commonly used in emergency situations for chest pain related to potential myocardial infarction.
C. Morphine is commonly used in emergency departments for the management of acute chest pain, particularly when associated with myocardial ischemia. It helps reduce pain and anxiety, lowers myocardial oxygen demand, and has vasodilatory effects that can alleviate the burden on the heart.
D. Hydromorphone is another opioid analgesic but is not usually the preferred choice for chest pain in the acute setting compared to morphine.
Free Nursing Test Bank
- Free Pharmacology Quiz 1
- Free Medical-Surgical Quiz 2
- Free Fundamentals Quiz 3
- Free Maternal-Newborn Quiz 4
- Free Anatomy and Physiology Quiz 5
- Free Obstetrics and Pediatrics Quiz 6
- Free Fluid and Electrolytes Quiz 7
- Free Community Health Quiz 8
- Free Promoting Health across the Lifespan Quiz 9
- Free Multidimensional Care Quiz 10
View Related questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. While safe sex practices can reduce the risk of STIs, they do not eliminate the risk entirely, especially in cases where partners have multiple sexual partners.
B. Not all STIs are transmitted solely through sexual intercourse; some can be transmitted through other means, making this statement overly simplistic.
C. It's important to note that asymptomatic individuals can still be carriers of STIs, so this statement may give a false sense of security.
D. Teaching the importance of adhering to the medication regimen and ensuring follow-up appointments is critical in managing gonorrhea effectively and preventing complications or reinfection. This approach emphasizes the importance of treatment compliance and ongoing health management.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. While monitoring blood glucose levels is important for managing diabetes, this instruction alone does not specifically address the goal of lowering blood glucose levels and increasing HDL levels.
B. Monthly appointments with a dietitian can be beneficial but are not as essential as incorporating regular exercise into the client’s lifestyle.
C. Regular exercise is a key component in managing type 2 diabetes, as it helps to lower blood glucose levels and can improve HDL cholesterol. Medical approval ensures that the exercise regimen is safe for the client.
D. Limiting calories on days unable to exercise is not a primary focus for managing diabetes and may not be practical or effective in promoting overall health.