A client presents to the emergency department reporting chest pain that is radiating to the left arm, shortness of breath, and diaphoresis. Which medication should the nurse anticipate being prescribed by the healthcare provider?
Oxycodone.
Fentanyl.
Morphine.
Hydromorphone.
The Correct Answer is C
A. Oxycodone is an opioid analgesic used for moderate to severe pain management but is not typically the first-line medication in acute coronary syndrome scenarios.
B. Fentanyl is a potent opioid that may be used for severe pain; however, morphine is more commonly used in emergency situations for chest pain related to potential myocardial infarction.
C. Morphine is commonly used in emergency departments for the management of acute chest pain, particularly when associated with myocardial ischemia. It helps reduce pain and anxiety, lowers myocardial oxygen demand, and has vasodilatory effects that can alleviate the burden on the heart.
D. Hydromorphone is another opioid analgesic but is not usually the preferred choice for chest pain in the acute setting compared to morphine.
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Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. A nursing care plan in the medical record before assessing the patient so that the nurse can identify priorities. The nurse should assess the patient first to determine their needs and priorities rather than create a care plan without assessment.
B. At least three times during the shift: at the beginning, in the middle, at the end, and as needed. Regular documentation is good practice, but the initial assessment must be documented at the beginning of the shift to establish a baseline.
C. An initial assessment of the patient and a plan based on the needs of the patient as assessed at the beginning of the shift. Documenting an initial assessment is crucial for identifying immediate needs and planning care, especially after surgery.
D. At the end of the shift so that the nurse can give full attention to the patient's needs during the shift. Waiting until the end of the shift risks missing critical changes and does not provide a clear baseline assessment.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. A headache that worsens upon sitting up is characteristic of a post-lumbar puncture headache, indicating a potential complication related to cerebrospinal fluid leakage.
B. Pain in the lower back after the procedure can be normal and does not necessarily indicate a complication.
C. Nausea and vomiting can occur but are not specific indicators of a complication following a lumbar puncture.
D. Sore throat when swallowing and talking is not typically associated with lumbar puncture complications and may relate to other causes such as anxiety or dehydration.