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A client is started on gemfibrozil to assist in the lowering of triglyceride level. Which of the following side effects is associated with gemfibrozil?

A.

gallstones

B.

decreased PT time

C.

hyperkalemia

D.

Increased creatinine clearance

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A) Gallstones: Gemfibrozil is associated with an increased risk of gallstones. This medication can alter the metabolism of lipids and bile, potentially leading to the formation of gallstones. Clients should be monitored for symptoms such as abdominal pain or discomfort that could indicate gallbladder issues.

B) Decreased PT time: Gemfibrozil does not typically affect prothrombin time (PT). Instead, it may interact with anticoagulants and potentially increase PT time, requiring careful monitoring in patients taking both medications.

 

C) Hyperkalemia: While hyperkalemia can occur with certain lipid-lowering medications, it is not a common side effect associated with gemfibrozil. This drug primarily affects triglycerides and cholesterol levels without significantly impacting potassium levels.

 

D) Increased creatinine clearance: Gemfibrozil is not known to increase creatinine clearance; in fact, it can sometimes affect renal function. Monitoring kidney function is important, but increased creatinine clearance is not an expected outcome with this medication.


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View Related questions

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A) Dry, non-productive cough: One of the most common side effects associated with ACE inhibitors is a dry, non-productive cough. This occurs due to the accumulation of bradykinin, a peptide that can increase in the body when ACE is inhibited. Nurses should assess for this symptom, as it may require changing the medication if it becomes bothersome to the client.

B) Nausea and vomiting: While nausea and vomiting can occur with various medications, they are not specific or common side effects of ACE inhibitors. If these symptoms do arise, they may be due to other factors and should be investigated further.

C) Hypokalemia and vomiting: ACE inhibitors are more commonly associated with hyperkalemia (elevated potassium levels) rather than hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is important, but vomiting is not a typical side effect of ACE inhibitors.

D) Epistaxis and headache: Although headaches can occur with many medications, epistaxis (nosebleeds) is not a common side effect associated with ACE inhibitors. While headache assessment is appropriate, the dry cough is the more characteristic and important symptom to monitor in clients on these medications.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A) Losartan (Cozaar): This medication is an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB) and is often used as an alternative for patients who experience a cough due to ACE inhibitors. Unlike ACE inhibitors, ARBs do not typically cause a cough because they do not affect bradykinin levels, making losartan an appropriate choice for managing hypertension without the adverse effect of a persistent cough.

B) Hydralazine HCL (Apresoline): While hydralazine is an antihypertensive, it works through a different mechanism (direct vasodilation) and is not a first-line alternative for patients with a history of ACE inhibitor-induced cough. It's generally used in specific situations, such as severe hypertension or heart failure.

C) Furosemide (Lasix): This is a loop diuretic primarily used for conditions like heart failure or edema, rather than for the management of hypertension alone. It does not address the underlying hypertension in the same manner as ACE inhibitors or ARBs.

D) Metoprolol (Lopressor): This is a beta-blocker that can be used for hypertension, but it does not directly address the issue of cough related to ACE inhibitors. Switching to a beta-blocker may not be the best option if the client is specifically seeking to avoid the cough associated with ACE inhibitors.

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