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A client is started on gemfibrozil to assist in the lowering of triglyceride level. Which of the following side effects is associated with gemfibrozil?

A.

gallstones

B.

decreased PT time

C.

hyperkalemia

D.

Increased creatinine clearance

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A) Gallstones: Gemfibrozil is associated with an increased risk of gallstones. This medication can alter the metabolism of lipids and bile, potentially leading to the formation of gallstones. Clients should be monitored for symptoms such as abdominal pain or discomfort that could indicate gallbladder issues.

B) Decreased PT time: Gemfibrozil does not typically affect prothrombin time (PT). Instead, it may interact with anticoagulants and potentially increase PT time, requiring careful monitoring in patients taking both medications.

 

C) Hyperkalemia: While hyperkalemia can occur with certain lipid-lowering medications, it is not a common side effect associated with gemfibrozil. This drug primarily affects triglycerides and cholesterol levels without significantly impacting potassium levels.

 

D) Increased creatinine clearance: Gemfibrozil is not known to increase creatinine clearance; in fact, it can sometimes affect renal function. Monitoring kidney function is important, but increased creatinine clearance is not an expected outcome with this medication.


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View Related questions

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A) Pulse oximetry of 92%: While a pulse oximetry reading of 92% is slightly below normal, it is not a definitive reason to hold verapamil. This reading indicates mild hypoxemia, but it does not directly contraindicate the use of verapamil. Other factors should be considered before making a decision based solely on this value.

B) Pulse of 78: A pulse rate of 78 beats per minute is within the normal range for adults and does not warrant holding verapamil. This finding alone does not indicate any immediate concerns related to the administration of the medication.

C) Respiratory rate of 12: A respiratory rate of 12 breaths per minute is within the normal range for adults. This finding does not provide any indication that verapamil should be withheld. It is important to consider other clinical factors when assessing the appropriateness of medication administration.

D) History of myocardial infarction a week ago: Verapamil, a calcium channel blocker, can have significant effects on cardiac function. Administering it to a client who recently experienced a myocardial infarction (heart attack) could exacerbate cardiac issues and lead to complications. Therefore, it is crucial to hold the medication and consult with the healthcare provider before proceeding.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A) Dry, non-productive cough: One of the most common side effects associated with ACE inhibitors is a dry, non-productive cough. This occurs due to the accumulation of bradykinin, a peptide that can increase in the body when ACE is inhibited. Nurses should assess for this symptom, as it may require changing the medication if it becomes bothersome to the client.

B) Nausea and vomiting: While nausea and vomiting can occur with various medications, they are not specific or common side effects of ACE inhibitors. If these symptoms do arise, they may be due to other factors and should be investigated further.

C) Hypokalemia and vomiting: ACE inhibitors are more commonly associated with hyperkalemia (elevated potassium levels) rather than hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is important, but vomiting is not a typical side effect of ACE inhibitors.

D) Epistaxis and headache: Although headaches can occur with many medications, epistaxis (nosebleeds) is not a common side effect associated with ACE inhibitors. While headache assessment is appropriate, the dry cough is the more characteristic and important symptom to monitor in clients on these medications.

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