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A client is started on gemfibrozil to assist in the lowering of triglyceride level. Which of the following side effects is associated with gemfibrozil?

A.

gallstones

B.

decreased PT time

C.

hyperkalemia

D.

Increased creatinine clearance

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A) Gallstones: Gemfibrozil is associated with an increased risk of gallstones. This medication can alter the metabolism of lipids and bile, potentially leading to the formation of gallstones. Clients should be monitored for symptoms such as abdominal pain or discomfort that could indicate gallbladder issues.

B) Decreased PT time: Gemfibrozil does not typically affect prothrombin time (PT). Instead, it may interact with anticoagulants and potentially increase PT time, requiring careful monitoring in patients taking both medications.

 

C) Hyperkalemia: While hyperkalemia can occur with certain lipid-lowering medications, it is not a common side effect associated with gemfibrozil. This drug primarily affects triglycerides and cholesterol levels without significantly impacting potassium levels.

 

D) Increased creatinine clearance: Gemfibrozil is not known to increase creatinine clearance; in fact, it can sometimes affect renal function. Monitoring kidney function is important, but increased creatinine clearance is not an expected outcome with this medication.


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View Related questions

Correct Answer is ["D","E"]

Explanation

A) Aspirin: While aspirin is an antiplatelet medication that can help prevent further clot formation, it does not have thrombolytic properties and does not directly lyse existing clots. Therefore, it is not appropriate for this purpose.

B) Heparin: Heparin is an anticoagulant used to prevent the extension of existing clots and reduce the risk of new clots forming, but it does not dissolve existing clots. It helps manage deep vein thrombosis but does not have thrombolytic activity.

C) Warfarin (Coumadin): Warfarin is an oral anticoagulant that is used to prevent new clot formation and the growth of existing clots. However, like heparin, it does not actively lyse or dissolve existing clots.

D) Alteplase (Activase): This medication is a thrombolytic agent that actively dissolves blood clots by activating plasminogen to plasmin, leading to clot breakdown. It is appropriate for use in cases of deep vein thrombosis when clot lysis is indicated.

E) Anistreplase (Eminase): Similar to alteplase, anistreplase is another thrombolytic agent used to lyse existing clots. It acts by converting plasminogen to plasmin, effectively breaking down fibrin in clots, making it suitable for the treatment of deep vein thrombosis.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A) Dry, non-productive cough: One of the most common side effects associated with ACE inhibitors is a dry, non-productive cough. This occurs due to the accumulation of bradykinin, a peptide that can increase in the body when ACE is inhibited. Nurses should assess for this symptom, as it may require changing the medication if it becomes bothersome to the client.

B) Nausea and vomiting: While nausea and vomiting can occur with various medications, they are not specific or common side effects of ACE inhibitors. If these symptoms do arise, they may be due to other factors and should be investigated further.

C) Hypokalemia and vomiting: ACE inhibitors are more commonly associated with hyperkalemia (elevated potassium levels) rather than hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is important, but vomiting is not a typical side effect of ACE inhibitors.

D) Epistaxis and headache: Although headaches can occur with many medications, epistaxis (nosebleeds) is not a common side effect associated with ACE inhibitors. While headache assessment is appropriate, the dry cough is the more characteristic and important symptom to monitor in clients on these medications.

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