A client is started on gemfibrozil to assist in the lowering of triglyceride level. Which of the following side effects is associated with gemfibrozil?
gallstones
decreased PT time
hyperkalemia
Increased creatinine clearance
The Correct Answer is A
A) Gallstones: Gemfibrozil is associated with an increased risk of gallstones. This medication can alter the metabolism of lipids and bile, potentially leading to the formation of gallstones. Clients should be monitored for symptoms such as abdominal pain or discomfort that could indicate gallbladder issues.
B) Decreased PT time: Gemfibrozil does not typically affect prothrombin time (PT). Instead, it may interact with anticoagulants and potentially increase PT time, requiring careful monitoring in patients taking both medications.
C) Hyperkalemia: While hyperkalemia can occur with certain lipid-lowering medications, it is not a common side effect associated with gemfibrozil. This drug primarily affects triglycerides and cholesterol levels without significantly impacting potassium levels.
D) Increased creatinine clearance: Gemfibrozil is not known to increase creatinine clearance; in fact, it can sometimes affect renal function. Monitoring kidney function is important, but increased creatinine clearance is not an expected outcome with this medication.
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Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A) Pulse oximetry of 92%: While a pulse oximetry reading of 92% is slightly below normal, it is not a definitive reason to hold verapamil. This reading indicates mild hypoxemia, but it does not directly contraindicate the use of verapamil. Other factors should be considered before making a decision based solely on this value.
B) Pulse of 78: A pulse rate of 78 beats per minute is within the normal range for adults and does not warrant holding verapamil. This finding alone does not indicate any immediate concerns related to the administration of the medication.
C) Respiratory rate of 12: A respiratory rate of 12 breaths per minute is within the normal range for adults. This finding does not provide any indication that verapamil should be withheld. It is important to consider other clinical factors when assessing the appropriateness of medication administration.
D) History of myocardial infarction a week ago: Verapamil, a calcium channel blocker, can have significant effects on cardiac function. Administering it to a client who recently experienced a myocardial infarction (heart attack) could exacerbate cardiac issues and lead to complications. Therefore, it is crucial to hold the medication and consult with the healthcare provider before proceeding.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A) Carvedilol: While carvedilol is a beta-blocker that can be used to treat hypertension, it is not considered a first-line treatment. Beta-blockers are typically used when other first-line agents are not effective or in specific situations such as heart failure or ischemic heart disease.
B) Lisinopril: Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor and is considered a first-line treatment for hypertension. It effectively reduces blood pressure by inhibiting the angiotensin-converting enzyme, leading to vasodilation and decreased blood volume. Its well-documented efficacy and favorable side effect profile make it a common choice for initial therapy.
C) Clonidine: Clonidine is an alpha-2 adrenergic agonist that can lower blood pressure but is generally not used as a first-line treatment due to its side effects and potential for rebound hypertension if discontinued abruptly.
D) Doxazosin: Doxazosin is an alpha-1 blocker that can be used to treat hypertension but is not typically a first-line choice. It may be used in specific cases, such as in patients with benign prostatic hyperplasia, but other classes of medications are usually preferred for initial hypertension treatment.